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Here is the maximum extent of the Ottoman Empire (circa 1590):

Ottoman Empire, circa 1590

Here is the propagation of Arabic culture, prior to the modern era:

Diffusion of Arabic culture

As you can see there is quite an overlap.

However, while these territories were considered Arabic during the time of the Caliphates and are generally considered Arabic in the modern post-Ottoman era - for the Ottoman Empire they were not considered Arabic territories or a singular Arab empire; despite retaining the same religion, language and culture of the earlier Caliphate era.

So why was the Ottoman empire not seen as an Arabic empire?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Louis Rhys, Eugene Seidel, knut, Mark C. Wallace, DVK Sep 30 '13 at 19:56

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

I don't see what is unclear with the question. It seems a valid question to me. The answer may be simple and quite obvious, but that doesn't make the question unclear. – Lennart Regebro Sep 29 '13 at 6:46
Please note that what you mentions as "countries" are actually cities nowadays. – Paŭlo Ebermann Sep 29 '13 at 12:54
What evidence is there that the Ottoman empire was not considered an Arabic empire? – Mark C. Wallace Sep 29 '13 at 17:01
@MarkC.Wallace Wikipedia and other sources , even the answer below says that ottoman is not arab – moudiz Sep 29 '13 at 18:56
I have made some edits that I hope makes the question answerable, and have voted to reopen. – Tom Au Oct 12 '13 at 23:48
up vote 17 down vote accepted

The leading people of the Ottoman empire were no Arabs, but from Turkish tribes. They speak a variety of the Turkish language (Ottoman Turkish). Turkish is its own Language family, Arab belongs to the Afro-Asiatic/Semitic Language family.

Big areas of the empire were Arab, but there where also big non-Arab area and peoples (Greece, Albania, the former Yugoslawia, Hungary, parts of Ukraine...)

You say it was sharing the same religion, culture and language That's not correct. The Ottoman empire was an empire with many peoples and religions. See for example the 1906 Ottoman census

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I edit my questiong – moudiz Sep 28 '13 at 16:37
This seems to be the perfect (and obvious) answer to the question. The Ottoman empire is not considered an Arab empire because its rulers were not Arabs, with Arab defined (as it usually and most helpfully is) as someone whose maternal language is Arabic. – Olivier Sep 29 '13 at 19:10
It is also not correct to refer to Turkish and Arabic peoples as sharing the same culture. Through Islam they share many cultural attributes, but there was just as much, or perhaps even more, not shared. Wahhabi interpretations of Islam are distinctly Arabic in origin, and not at all common in areas populated by Turks. – Pieter Geerkens Sep 30 '13 at 3:59

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