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43% of Jews live in Israel and 40% of Jews are living in USA.

Why is such a large proportion of the Jewish population living in USA? Is there a historical event or trend that has produced this effect?

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Tom Au, Pieter Geerkens, American Luke, Steven Drennon Dec 19 '13 at 5:09

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

Instead of this less than stellar question, I posted a (hopefully) better replacement: history.stackexchange.com/questions/11175/… –  DVK Dec 22 '13 at 21:41

1 Answer 1

Best estimates set the Jewish population of the USA at about 5 million. With a total population of 317 million, that's just over 1% of the USA's population. Which means that if they DID plan to occupy the USA, they're doing a pretty bad job of it.

Oh, and they didn't plan to occupy the USA.

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Pretty good answer to a lousy question. Ordinarily, I'd upvote it, except that I voted to close, which is to say that I don't want to encourage answers to this (or similarly bad) questions. –  Tom Au Dec 19 '13 at 1:58
Hahaha well thanks, I appreciate the sentiment. ;) Normally I ignore questions like this, but when the answer popped into my head I couldn't help but post it. –  Alexander Winn Dec 19 '13 at 1:59
Last-Man did not use the word "occupation" in his question, and I do not understand why Alexander Winn uses it twice. I see nothing wrong with the question, and don't understand why it was closed. –  Alex Dec 19 '13 at 17:21
@Alex Check the edit log for the question. The original phrasing was "Did the Jews quietly occupy the USA" and the description was "43% of Jews live in Israel and 40% of Jews living in USA!. that is really big percent. did Jews plan to quietly occupy United States of America?" Congusbongus edited it to make it more politely stated, and the explanation of his edit is listed as "Salvage a question with a terrible premise." –  Alexander Winn Dec 19 '13 at 17:41
@Alexander Winn. This is what I suspected, but did not check the edit log. Now I checked it and see that you are right. –  Alex Dec 19 '13 at 19:04

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