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I know of the famous Percentages Agreement between Stalin and Churchill. As is commonly known, Stalin reneged on his promise in regards to Hungary, Bulgaria and Romania which eliminated all British influence by 1950, but at the same time kept his promise on Greece and Yugoslavia.

My question is, was Stalin intending to renege his promise on Greece and Turkey as well, but was thwarted? Was there a Soviet conspiracy to start/further support communist insurgencies in these countries, or did Stalin keep his sphere of influence?

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Not sure about Turkey/Greece, but I recall that he was interested in Iran. –  DVK Jan 28 at 18:04
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Turkey remained neutral through the Second World War, and so was not part of the Balkans discussion between Churchill and Stalin at the Fourth Moscow Conference (as discussed in my answer here). As I note in that answer:

Although minority percentages were actually set in the all cases other than Yugoslavia, it is clear that Stalin regarded these divisions as all or nothing. No overt support was provided by the USSR to the Communist guerillas during the Greek Civil War of 1946-1949 despite British support for the Greek government

At that conference, no clear meaning was attached to the percentages agreed on by Churchill and Stalin and amended by Eden and Molotov. Churchill and Stalin clearly had a different interpretation of what minority percentages meant, but to state that Stalin reneged based on that is disingenuous at best.

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Well, I'm pretty sure any reasonable meaning of those percentages could not imply "exactly 0 influence", like what happened with those eastern countries. –  Lohoris Jan 28 at 14:50
    
@Lohoris: In a one-party state, minority percentages mean exactly zero influence. Churchill was remiss in not observing that up front. –  Pieter Geerkens Jan 30 at 23:38
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