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In the Spanish/Austrian Low Countries a change in the ancient coat of arms of a seigneurie could not be made except by authorization of sovereign. The coat of arms of a noble family could be appropriated by the purchaser of its seigneurie if he or she obtained letters patent from the sovereign. (Clark, Samuel., State and Status: The Rise of the State and Aristocratic Power in Western Europe, p170)

What difference is between "seigneurie" and "manor" in a feudal system?

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+1 and welcome to the site! –  Felix Goldberg Mar 5 '14 at 15:20
Thank you very much! –  user64617 Mar 5 '14 at 15:22
Did you do a google search and notice that the first is French and the second English? –  Mark C. Wallace Mar 5 '14 at 15:27
I have added the source. You are right Mr. Wallace. Is it possible they are the equivalent terms in conception but relate to two different regions? –  user64617 Mar 5 '14 at 16:39
At that level of detail, I suspect so. Although within the narrow context of the quote, I think the equivalent English term might be Armiger. Note that unlike the example you cite, English arms are controlled by the College of Arms. –  Mark C. Wallace Mar 5 '14 at 17:24

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