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In Australia's History, the Europeans tried to breed out Aboriginals colour by pairing a Aboriginal Woman with a White Man. They did this because they believed...

  1. That Aboriginals were a dying race
  2. That Australia was a 'white mans' country
  3. If they did this than if they had a baby it would be a quarter white and so on until the black colour was gone

My question is did any other countries do this and was this an effect of Transnational History. This happened around about the time of the Stolen Generation in about the 1909's 1969 I think.

Answers are appreciated.

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closed as unclear what you're asking by Drux, Mark C. Wallace, Kobunite, Pieter Geerkens, jwenting Mar 13 '14 at 10:28

Please clarify your specific problem or add additional details to highlight exactly what you need. As it's currently written, it’s hard to tell exactly what you're asking. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

The premise of this question should be backed up by stronger evidence. Are you saying that some Europeans may have paired one aboriginal woman with one white man against their will? Why is it that the circumstances seem relatively unclear but the ascribed reasons are not? As it now stands, the chosen title does not seem to match the body of this (perhaps loaded) question. – Drux Mar 8 '14 at 19:44
@Drux The concept of "breeding out the colour" was a concept that did exist in Australia. However, in at least some jurisdictions and times, sex between aboriginal and non-aboriginal people was illegal except with special permission, so "breeding out the colour" wasn't a universally agreed-upon policy. – Andrew Grimm Mar 9 '14 at 1:08
I'd like to see some evidence of policies to force marriage of Aborigines with whites. There were certainly policies in place to prevent them from marrying certain people that the department deemed inappropriate, but that's a different thing. – lins314159 Mar 9 '14 at 10:52
It wasn't marriage!!!! Try not reading between the lines. – user3965 Mar 9 '14 at 12:08
@MiharuDante IMHO you should really work on improving your question (esp. its premise) based on the comments received: I'm (also) at a loss understanding what the "1909's 1969" might refer to. – Drux Mar 9 '14 at 13:54

The section "Former Yugoslavia" of the Wikipedia article on War rape says that Serbs raped Muslims and Croatians with the intention to produce new Serbs

During the Bosnian War the existence of deliberately created "rape camps" was reported. The reported aim of these camps was to impregnate the Muslim and Croatian women held captive. It has been reported that often women were kept in confinement until the late stage of their pregnancy. This occurred in the context of a patrilineal society, in which children inherit their father's ethnicity, hence the "rape camps" aimed at the birth of a new generation of Serb children. According to the Women's Group Tresnjevka more than 35,000 women and children were held in such Serb-run "rape camps".[152][153][154]

However, when this was happening, large-scale, systematic killing on racial or religious lines also was happening.

I'm not sure if this answers the question, because I assume the question asker is mainly interested in attempts at eliminating a race without large-scale killing being done.

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The concept of race (Bosnian as opposed to other war parties) perhaps does not apply here, or does it? – Drux Mar 9 '14 at 13:47
@Drux it doesn't. It wasn't so much racial as religious. Muslims raping Christians, Christians Muslims. It's age old and simply showing domination over a subjected population by the most base mean possible, the violation of its women. – jwenting Mar 10 '14 at 8:27
@jwenting I agree (hint: rhetorical question). – Drux Mar 10 '14 at 10:33
@Drux does it matter whether it's a race or a religious group? – Andrew Grimm Mar 10 '14 at 10:35

protected by Samuel Russell Mar 10 '14 at 1:48

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