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There's a lot of easily-accessible information about the staffing of a Tudor nobleman's household, but very little about that of a Tudor gentleman's.

Was it basically the same as a nobleman's? Or would there be significantly fewer servants?

Was there a smaller proportion of gentlemen servants and a greater proportion of yeoman servants and grooms? Would there be any gentlemen servants at all, or would

(By "gentleman" I mean a wealthy land-owner (usually 200 acres or more, including a dozen or more manors), who presides over manor-courts and doesn't do any manual work himself, but who doesn't hold any aristocratic title; or the son of such a wealthy land-owner).

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Manual work. Sounds icky. –  Tyler Durden Aug 18 '14 at 22:23

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Suggest you start here: P.W. FLEMING, Household Servants of the Yorkist and Early Tudor Gentry, in: Daniel WILLIAMS (ed.), Early Tudor England (Harlaxton Medieval Studies, O.S., 4), Woodbridge 1989, pp. 19-36

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I really resent being downvoted anonymously for having answered a question which no-one else had bothered to respond to for 3 years. My reply was a perfectly clear academic reference. The principle of all StackExchange fora is that the person posting is expected to do some work in order to reach the final answer. This is supposed to be a site for historians not a substitute for Wikipedia. So I'm not going to summarise the chapter. If anyone is interested, they can easily get it from a library. Perhaps the person who downvoted me would have the courtesy to leave a public comment next time. –  ThomasDoe Sep 9 at 21:16

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