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There's a lot of easily-accessible information about the staffing of a Tudor nobleman's household, but very little about that of a Tudor gentleman's.

Was it basically the same as a nobleman's? Or would there be significantly fewer servants?

Was there a smaller proportion of gentlemen servants and a greater proportion of yeoman servants and grooms? Would there be any gentlemen servants at all, or would

(By "gentleman" I mean a wealthy land-owner (usually 200 acres or more, including a dozen or more manors), who presides over manor-courts and doesn't do any manual work himself, but who doesn't hold any aristocratic title; or the son of such a wealthy land-owner).

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Depends slightly what you mean by a Gentleman.

Somebody that owned land and possibly had a minor local title would have a scaled down version of a nobelman's household. It gets a bit fuzzy because if they also farmed their own land they would have farm and estate workers, gardeners, foresters, shepherds, etc

A city merchant would obviously have a smaller house and no need for outside staff but was probably cash richer than a gentlemen and even many of the nobility. The Tudor period was a big boom time for the middle class and merchants generally - lot of them became very rich.

Even a yeoman farmer, someone in a village that owned or rented his own farm, would have servants. Without modern appliances and shopping it took a lot of manpower to run a house - anyone who wasn't a hand-to-mouth peasant would have had at least some kitchen help.

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I've updated my question to be more specific. I'm interested in the details - would a wealthy gentlemen have employed what, in noble houses, were called "gentlemen waiters", "gentlemen ushers" and so on, or would gentlemen not have served in another gentlemen's household? – Nicolas Feb 10 '12 at 10:05

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