Take the 2-minute tour ×
History Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for historians and history buffs. It's 100% free, no registration required.

There's a lot of easily-accessible information about the staffing of a Tudor nobleman's household, but very little about that of a Tudor gentleman's.

Was it basically the same as a nobleman's? Or would there be significantly fewer servants?

Was there a smaller proportion of gentlemen servants and a greater proportion of yeoman servants and grooms? Would there be any gentlemen servants at all, or would

(By "gentleman" I mean a wealthy land-owner (usually 200 acres or more, including a dozen or more manors), who presides over manor-courts and doesn't do any manual work himself, but who doesn't hold any aristocratic title; or the son of such a wealthy land-owner).

share|improve this question
    
Manual work. Sounds icky. –  Tyler Durden Aug 18 at 22:23

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.