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I have wondered if there are any estimates on the number of bullets used in World War 2. I have thought about the question but cannot even get a plausible attack strategy.

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Is there a rationale for this question? While it might be interesting I'm unclear as to the purpose of asking. – MichaelF Apr 5 '12 at 11:56
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Yeah, I have to agree with @MichaelF, I'm not sure how this has any valid significance or is even answerable. I think its safe to say that the number of bullets fired was in the order of s__t-tons...s__t-tons. A more significant question might be on the order of "how much ammunition was produced by the belligerent nations in WWII". Possibly as a ratio to the number of casualties. – BrotherJack Apr 5 '12 at 12:04
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You could probably tackle it by figuring out how many bullets a day various combatants produced, then assume pretty much all of them where fired, since if they were not then the combatants would have not wasted resources making more. – Canageek Apr 5 '12 at 13:20
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Lol, I think is a good question. I never thought about it :) – Rodrigo Apr 18 '12 at 13:21
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@quant_dev a good part of that was production stockpiled for use during the invasion of Japan, preparations for which had been underway for a year or so by the time the war ended. – jwenting Mar 22 at 12:49
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2 Answers

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The following article describes in great detail the production and deployment of munitions by the Army Ordnance Dept. (AOD).

The Great Arsenal of Democracy

...

Lt. Gen. Levin H. Campbell, Jr., Chief of Ordnance from 1942 to 1946, proudly had this to say:

From Pearl Harbor to V-J Day the Industry-Ordnance team furnished to the Army and 43 foreign nations 47 billion rounds of small arms ammunition, approximately 11 million tons of artillery ammunition, more than 12 million rifles and carbines, approximately 750,000 artillery pieces and 3/2 million military vehicles.

...

The Great Arsenal of Democracy 
Posted on May 20, 2003 (nraila.org)

Note:

This is the US production, given the size of the US industry I would have thought it was more than the production of the Axis side, so if you ignore local UK/USSR amounts I would guess it represents more than 50% of the total.

Additional Information:

Lt. Gen. Levin H. Campbell, Jr.

Considered by many to be World War II’s greatest weapons designer and producer, he gained fame by heading the Ordnance Department through the days when the Industry-Ordnance Team began producing overwhelming firepower for World War II.

Lt. Gen. Levin H. Campbell, Jr. authored The Industry-Ordnance Team. The book contained his recounting of the Allied effort to produce and deliver weapons, vehicles and munitions for World War II.

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It's unclear if he's talking about only the US allies or not, maybe because I don't know what the "Industry-Ordnance team" is. – Lohoris Apr 6 '12 at 11:33
@Lohoris - the US govt dept in charge of supply. – mgb Apr 6 '12 at 14:39
As I remember, U.S. arms production approximated that of Germany, the Soviet Union, and Britain combined, which is to say that the "balance" was held by "smaller" countries like Japan and Italy. Which is to say it was worthwhile going after Germany's ALLIES, in case either Britain or Russia fell. – Tom Au Apr 6 '12 at 20:51
If you ignore Soviet production is about the biggest IF I've ever seen. They had far and away the biggest war and maintained a significant GDP throughout. Great answer, potentially terrible guess. – Nathan Cooper Mar 22 at 15:13
This definitely does not answer how much were used. – Anixx Mar 22 at 17:35
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(A slightly better than pure guess answer) From http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/World_War_II, the total number of military causalities was 24,000,000.

The number of bullets fired per kill varies based on the source from 5k to 50k. Assuming 10k the number of bullets fired would be 24 x 10^10.

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Good suggestion but you need to bear in mind that by far the biggest killer in actual combat was artillery. That doesn't take into account grenades and bombs, I don't have figures for those but I'd guess people killed by bullets would be somewhat less than 30% of the total casualties, perhaps much less than that. answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20090427003103AA04lGs – davidjwest Apr 8 '12 at 18:35
Agreed. In fact, that is why I mentioned my answer is only a little better than pure guesswork. :) – Bharat B Apr 10 '12 at 4:00
also doesn't take into account the number of munitions employed that were never aimed at killing humans (directly). Think attacks on depots, parked aircraft, ships at anchor, etc. etc. where human deaths if any were not the intent but a side effect. – jwenting Mar 22 at 12:52
@BharatB A lot of prisoners of war were starved to death, germans starved as much as 2 million russian soldiers[60% POW's] during the initial campaign. Also the bitter winter of stalingrad claimed hundreds and thousands of german lives without a single bullet fired – Barath Bushan Mar 22 at 15:50
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@BarathBushan why are you responding to your own earlier comment? :) And do keep in mind that most of those starved POWs were unintentional, the result of the camps simply not getting enough food because there wasn't enough to go around. The civilian population in surrounding areas also had a very hard time late in the war, and I for one don't blame any German (or indeed anyone at all) for feeding his own citizens before POWs. – jwenting Mar 25 at 7:08
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