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If you look at a map of China through the ages, you will usually find (from about the Han up) a huge mass representing China. On the other hand, you look at a map of Europe, and you'll usually see a huge number of states. Why was China able to unify and not Europe?

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+1. "Always" is a bit overstating the case. Look at the warring states period. However, the area seemed to tend toward unity as a stable state (unlike Europe), and this is IMHO one of the great questions of history. – T.E.D. Oct 17 '12 at 13:29
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@T.E.D. You are correct. Every several hundred years, China would spend a hundred years or so in disorder. Also, before I forget, I have to thank you for this question; do you remember this post? meta.history.stackexchange.com/questions/266/… – Russell Oct 17 '12 at 15:31
@T.E.D., PS, edited the question according to your "always" statement. It now reads usually. – Russell Oct 17 '12 at 15:38
The same question could be asked about India or Africa, but remember also that the modern boundaries of China are mostly derived from the extent of the late Qing Dynasty. Historically, Xinjian and Tibet were not integral to "China," nor much of Mongolia. The area controlled by the Ming in the early 15th century is about the same area controlled by the Roman Empire in the early 2nd century. Roman power waxed and waned from around the 3rd century BC to the 15th century AD. – choster Oct 17 '12 at 20:01
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@choster - Yes, but the RE broke up and never reconstituted, whereas China always did after its breakups. Getting at why is the heart of the matter. – T.E.D. Oct 17 '12 at 21:14
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7 Answers

up vote 22 down vote accepted

China (or at least its core) had a central, unifying culture built around philosophers such as Confucius and Lao-tse that was attractive to people over a wide land area. Also, the Chinese written language was developed from pictograms that represented "words," which although pronounced differently in different locations, could have the same meaning over wide land areas.

This core culture was widely admired, which is to say that people on the "edges" of "China" were often open to assimilation. And the country was fortunate that when conquered, it was by more "backward" (but fiercer) people such as the Mongols and Manchus who were glad to adopt Chinese culture, and also impose it on conquered people.

In Europe (at the risk of oversimplifying), there were three main cultural linguistic groups, Latin, Germanic and Slav, of roughly equal power and influence. While the balance of power shifted back and forth over the centuries, no one group became dominant. And often, they could not impose their culture over smaller subgroups that got in their way. In theory, Latin might have fulfilled the function of a common language like Chines, but (apart from modified forms such as French, Spanish or Italian, in most of the former Roman territories), it never took hold over the common people in the rest of Europe. Nor was there a common culture in most of Europe, at least until the time of the Enlightenment.

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The chinese script is IMHO an important factor. Being logographic, it can be used for any language, which facilitates communication between people who may not be able to understand each other's speech. However, for that to be an issue, the people in question have to want to communicate with other language speakers badly enough to learn it, which is where other explanations must come into play. – T.E.D. Oct 17 '12 at 21:20
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Europe culture was as unifying as Chinese. What you have today is directly built on Roman roots, and ultimately, Greek. It is not at all based on "three main cultural" groups; it is based on one. Both Chinese and European elites could understand their lingua franca at all times (common people seem unrelated to the matter). So, again, why is Europe divided into states for such a long time already, and China is not? – kubanczyk Oct 18 '12 at 7:24
@T.E.D., the Chinese language is logographic, however, it cannot substitute for the local jargon, nor does it cut across all the languages, for example, Cantonese, a huge language in Southern China, though it sounds slightly similar, does not have a written script, nor can Pu Tong Hua script substitute perfectly. (Not perfectly, but kind of understandable.) – Russell Oct 18 '12 at 7:29
@TomAu, As I said to T.E.D, the Chinese language though logographic, cannot be substituted perfectly for many dialects.(not perfectly, but it can sort of work.) However, the answer held together very well, so +1. – Russell Oct 18 '12 at 7:32
+1, all my readings on China have always noted the culture was assimilatd by all the conquerors, who either admired the culture and/or language or stayed and learned it. This allowed the country to keep a cohesion even with a large, varying geography with local dialects. – MichaelF Oct 18 '12 at 12:06
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It is a wrong assumption that Europe was never unified politically.

First, in the ancient times the cultural development of different European peoples was very diverse. The most advanced peoples of Europe adopted the Greek culture, alphabet and gods. You can see this on the example of Etruscans who used the Greek alphabet and worshiped the Greek gods. The same can be said about the Balkan peoples, Spanish peoples and to a certain degree about Italians. Germanic and Celtic peoples of the time also used Greek alphabet for their languages.

At the height the Greek civilization included not only most civilized parts of Europe but also portions of Middle East and Africa.

The North Europe was not included mostly because it was not that much developed at the time.

Later the civilization of Rome followed which also included the the most civilized parts of Europe and Mediterranean with some other areas as client states.

In the Middle ages, the Catholic Church and the Holy See took the role.

It was only starting with high middle ages the European nations began to assert sovereignty, partly because of the falling authority and prestige of the church.

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Hey, I never thought of it this way; it wasn't that Europe never unified, but that there was nothing in (northern) Europe. I have only one objection; the See couldn't really unify all the princes and lords. Over all, a very good answer that sheds a new view on the question. Thanks. +1 – Russell Oct 18 '12 at 7:35
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Not voting this down, but I do disagree with the first half (the second half of the answer is largely right though). Most of Greece's empire was Asian, and Rome never ran more of Europe than the extreme western areas. The only times in history Europe came close to being run by one entity were under Napolean and under Hitler, both in the modern era. – T.E.D. Oct 18 '12 at 13:35
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@Russell - Actually, as bad as my spelling is, I'm kinda proud of myself for getting the two s's. :-) – T.E.D. Oct 18 '12 at 14:30
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@Russell the western Europe was formally subjected to Holy Roman Emperor, who had the army. All the kings were considered vassals of the emperor. The breakup with France and England happened only when French (and English) kings failed to be elected to the position of emperor and Carolus V of Spain was elected intead. From that time on a rivalry between French kings and the house of Habsburg emerged as the kings claimed that the election of Carolus V was illegal. – Anixx Oct 19 '12 at 7:15
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@Anixx - The HRE was essentially just Germany and the North of Italy. It was never even close to covering all Europe. – T.E.D. Oct 19 '12 at 12:49
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There was always somebody around Europe applying the Divide and Conquer strategy. When the Roman empire was at it's peak they consistently attacked, or supported the enemies of, the strongest of the Germanic tribes to make sure none of them would become too strong. Even those desperately trying to make friends with the Romans... if they were too strong.. peace was impossible. As Augustus, emperor of Rome so memorably put it "We will make sure we always support the weaker side, so they can keep fighting the stronger ones, and we're sitting pretty and the Germanic tribes are no longer a trouble for us" Augustus, Rome, 9.ad. Source: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=mAQqIcBamhs&feature=player_detailpage#t=2343s

The same has been true later on except then it was the British making sure no one would become too strong. Most of the African nations they created were nations the locals didn't really want to make, and they were made specifically with civil war in mind. Sudan for instance: http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=fj4hWU3VNr0.

When the French became all powerfull in 1812 the British did all they could to weaken them. And then Germany started rising in 1880 and by 1910 the British were onto them this time.

Also at the rape at Versaille in 1919 the divide and conquer strategy was thoroughly applied to central europe. Czechaslovakia and Poland were created out of thin air and Germany was shrunk and made to pay enormous fines etc. Also Austria-Hungary, Germany's main ally was completely dissolved. Map of Europe in 1900: https://www.mtholyoke.edu/courses/rschwart/hist151/maps/big1900_files/1900big.jpg

So this division within Europe is not a coincidense but a design. The same goes for the middle East and Africa.

But why wasn't somebody maintaining division within China in the same way.. well, the west did try to break China up in the 19th century, the country was split up into provinces each under the jurisdiction of a given western nation. The problem was that the Chinese were much more populous than the entire western world combined, plus traveling this distance was still quite expensive. So maintaining a large army that far away was logistically difficult. Also anti western sentiment in China grew with time and eventually became such that life for westerners there became bad. Also, the United States was against any trade restrictions with China.

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+1, nice answer. – Russell Oct 18 '12 at 23:33
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I disagree. If Rome "attacked the strongest of the Germanic tribes" then it was "conquer" and not "Divide and Conquer". Should lead straight to unification, not to division. Why Chinese fractions didn't try to divide China? And most importantly please do check your facts: Medieval Europe under British hegemony!?! Germany rising in 1880!?! Czechoslovakia and Poland created out of thin air in 1919!?! – kubanczyk Oct 19 '12 at 12:17
No, attacking the strongest one weakens the strongest one, making the group more divided within. Yes Britain wasn't that strong until the 17th century so it wasn't much it keeping Europe divided until then. Germany was very much rising in 1880, can read about it here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_Empire. And no, there was no Czechaslovakia or Poland in 1918. If you google "europe map 1900" you will find many maps pretty much all the same. They look like this: mtholyoke.edu/courses/rschwart/hist151/maps/big1900_files/…. – Hermann Ingjaldsson Oct 19 '12 at 14:03
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I happily provide more "misinformation" for you to ignore. This covers October-November 1918 when thousands of people (undoubtedly incited by British and French, no?) in a matter of days or weeks disarmed German units and formed their independent states: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Second_Polish_Republic#The_beginnings, en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Origins_of_Czechoslovakia. Here is what the local people decided: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Upper_Silesia_plebiscite – kubanczyk Oct 19 '12 at 16:36
I find that very off topic. – Hermann Ingjaldsson Dec 24 '12 at 15:22
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In Rome and China: Comparative Perspectives on Ancient World Empires, the first chapter by Walter Scheidel, From the "Great Convergence" to the "First Great Divergence", makes the case that the Chinese style of government focussed on centralising power while the Roman style allowed for a great deal of autonomy for appointed officials.

The Warring States era pitted states of similar size against each other for centuries, necessitating governmental reforms that strengthened the power of the central government. Qin implemented various measures that weakened the power of nobles, established standards across the kingdom (everything from language and currency to the size of axles) and allowed the central government to reach into all areas of society, with ultimate power being in the hands of the king. When Qin conquered its rival states, it sought to impose this same system throughout China, and despite its rhetoric, Han actually adopted most of Qin's institutions. Rome had comparatively brief periods in which it was matched against opponents of similar strength. Thus, its war efforts did not require the same level of internal reform and centralisation. Scheidel writes also that:

Moreover, protobureaucratization was logically incompatible with the governmental arrangements of the Roman Republic, which was controlled by a small number of aristocratic lineages that relied on social capital, patronage relationships and the manipulation of ritual performances to maintain power.

Scheidel notes that Chinese cities were typically governed by officials who came from outside the region. Thus, they were viewed as government appointed administrators rather than the community leaders who formed city councils in the cities of the Roman Empire. In times of disunity, Chinese warlords were more likely to be acting as pretenders to the throne than as representatives of regional interests.

In terms of philosophy and religion, China was founded on a combination of legalism and Confucianism. Both of these stressed the importance of centralised control and an ordered society. Rome was founded upon first paganism, then Christianity. Scheidel does not mention the former, but Edward Gibbon makes the case that paganism allowed for greater tolerance of the local customs of conquered areas, and it makes sense that this also allows for greater acceptance of autonomous government. When Rome turned to Christianity, it was to "churches that had evolved outside and in some sense in opposition to the imperial state" and therefore "could not offer comparable services" in terms of governance to Confucian scholars.

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Look at internet. No barrier of entry. So google grab all the niche. It's things like that. Now look at your local store. Why they don't expand all the way to Arab?

The answer is something called barrier of entry. It's just as costly for google to expand to your neighbor than to Arab. So they expand everywhere. Your local coffee shop doesn't have that luxury.

The same goes in China. No mountains means there is no barrier of entry for the most disciplined, smart, meritocratic king to expand everywhere else (it's really a bad thing but does sound positive).

In Europe, they got mountains forcing kings to maintain niches.

China contains plenty of land. In business term, there is no barrier of entry for those with lower marginal cost to expand to new territory.

Europe is mountainous.

Say I am winning. I may have the best army. People may fear me more. It costs less for me to screw others than for you to fight against me. But alas, all these mountains is hard to travel. The peasants don't talk my language.

In other word, in Europe, defender got more "home territory" advantage. In china attackers have about equal advantage with defenders.

Note: Well, the case of three kingdom period in China where China is NOT united, actually supports my point. Cao Cao cannot conquer Sun Quan precisely because there is a river that gets in the way (or so simplistically said). So natural state boundary often coincide with hard to pass terain. Europe has more of it than China.

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How does the ability to expand allow for easier reunification? I would have thought it was the other way around. Also, China has plenty of mountains. If you want to make the claim that they're in unimportant places, I'd like to see some citations. Off the top of my head, I can cite the case of the mountains in Hanzhong as a huge barrier to reunification during the three kingdoms period. – lins314159 Dec 24 '12 at 13:16
Yea. There is one river that separate the south and the north. There is one mountain. That's pretty much it. Much less mountainous. – Jim Thio Dec 24 '12 at 13:28
Look at internet. No barrier of entry. So google grab all the niche. It's things like that. Now look at your local store. Why they don't expand all the way to Arab? – Jim Thio Dec 24 '12 at 13:29
@JimThio, Although the point you brought up is a good and interesting point, it doesn't really answer the original question asked, and more answers why China was able to expand to the size that it did expand to. However, the stance that you've taken is slightly simplistic; China has mountains to the south and to the west. On the east, there is a large ocean, and to the north, at the time, there were nomadic peoples who often raided China. Perhaps you could ask another question, why did China expand to the extend that it did, and use this answer to answer it. – Russell Dec 24 '12 at 14:53
+1 This answer is not all clear but it contains a very good idea: the influence of mountains on the political landscape. – Felix Goldberg Dec 26 '12 at 14:48
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Let me throw my two cents into this debate. The other reasons that China was able to unify because of race and religion.

China has one pre-dominant ethnic group, Han, sharing a common written language ('hanzi') and common familial bonds (millions of Li, Zhang, Chen, etc).

Chinese are generally religion-agnostic. That's why Buddhism and Taoism have coexisted in China for millennia. Chinese people believe more in "good fortune", ie. karma, than any particular religion.

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So it this an answer or a question? – Felix Goldberg Jan 4 at 12:01
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Strange mixture of fact and opinion. The last sentence is clearly not responsive to the question and undermines the credibility of the prior assertions. – Mark C. Wallace Jan 4 at 12:45
It's not top noch stuff, but it does add a few ideas. It's a hard one but, +1 – Russell Jan 4 at 16:49
Sorry, downvote. – Felix Goldberg Jan 8 at 17:52

The foundation of the ideal of being Chinese for different Sinitic peoples (northern Han, Wu, Cantonese, Min etc) might have been stronger than Christianity in Europe and prestige of Roman empire. Besides (and related) nationalism and individualism in Europe might have been factors while Chinese are more social community.

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What does it mean "social community"? Are you referring to Confucian ideals of order? – Felix Goldberg Jan 8 at 17:53
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I agree that it might. However, it also might not. While you could be dead-on, its fairly easy to make reasonable-sounding general speculations of these kinds. Newspaper astrologers make their livings that way. So I'd like to see some kind of backup for such things before upvoting. – T.E.D. Jan 8 at 20:06

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