How severe were the casualties in ancient/medieval battles?

Question

I've heard that in most battles prior to the introduction of gunpowder weapons, the casualties were usually very low (around 5% even in long battles) prior to the moment when someone's formation was broken and the side stopped really fighting and just ran away (or was fighting without the benefits of proper formation if the side couldn't retreat), and that most people killed in battle were killed by the pursuing victorious force.

Is it true? Is it a matter of debate between historians? Is it basically true but exagerrated? Or is it considered a myth?

Answer 1

It all depends on which era you are ralking about.

There are mostly 3 different medieval eras. The early, the high and the late middle ages.

In Medieval Warfare: A History there is a chapter that talks about it. In the early middle ages and partly in the high, people were few and only the nobles and the clergy fought in wars.

Those two groups were pretty important and as time went on, heavily armored and well equiped. It was also better in impoverished enviroment to take ransom, rather than lives. So battles were fought mostly on small scale and the casualties were few from the battle itself. So the percentage according to the book (if I am not mistaken it was 5% exactly) was that low for the battle itself - excluding marching deaths, illness and other factors.

Later on though, during the high and late middle ages, the European war-machines became more sofisticated, the population increased and the middle class arose and took part in non-equestrian battles using pikes and other less glorious but as much effective weapons. This led to large scale battles with more casualties on the ill equiped. So yes as Tom Au and fred2 there was a time when the war took a great toll.

And this is especially true during the late middle ages and the introduction of the Gunpowder.

Answer 2

Medieval battles could get very bloody. For instance, in the Battle of Falkirk, Scotland, the Scots lost perhaps 2,000 (out of 6,000) in the battle, and another 1,000 or so in a well-organized retreat. English losses were proprotionately lighter, perhaps 1,000 out of 15,000. Wiliam Wallace vs. Robert Bruce: Why Did One Win and One Lose?

Answer 3

I think the answer would be 'it depends'. Three late medieval battles might serve as an example (artillery was used, but probably not in a way that had much bearing on the result). The Battle of Sauchieburn in 1488 pitted an unpopular king James III of Scotland against rebels led by his son. The king himself was killed, but there is a suspicion that those who could sneak away and avoid risking their lives for him, did so. The Battle of Bosworth where Richard III was killed seems somewhat similar. As much a chaotic punch-up as a classic battle, where you get the feeling those on the losing side did not really want to be there. There were many deaths, but percentage-wise it does not seem to have been great.

Contrast that with the Battle of Flodden in 1513, where a very popular James IV invaded England with 30,000 men. The army was confident, believed in their leader, did what they were told, and got massacred by the infantry wielding English bills (basically a machete on a stick).