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Has a country gone to war to seek payment of a debt since 1900? Expansionist policies don't count although use of debt as a justification would be interesting.

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marked as duplicate by Tea Drinker, Eugene Seidel, Kobunite, Mark C. Wallace, kmlawson Jul 21 '13 at 13:58

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

It's probably cheaper to simply write off the debt. – gerrit Dec 10 '12 at 21:50

Does the French Occupation of the Ruhr (1923-1925) count, or is that not war-ry enough?

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Please expand your answer to explain what happened along with relevant links. – coleopterist Dec 10 '12 at 16:07
This does not provide an answer to the question. To critique or request clarification from an author, leave a comment below their post - you can always comment on your own posts, and once you have sufficient reputation you will be able to comment on any post. – American Luke Dec 10 '12 at 16:30
Sounds like an acceptable (though shortish) answer to me. The OP can google it to get more information... – Felix Goldberg Dec 11 '12 at 0:44
sounds like an interesting example - honestly, I was thinking more 'war' than 'occupation'. 1920's German hyperinflation was obviously the most costly event writ large of all time. – timpone Dec 12 '12 at 3:22

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