Recently I've read a certain book about the Middle Ages that has been quite popular with laymen but is held in utter contempt by professional medievists. In fact, I hadn't known the book's reception history before I finished reading it, so I approached it as tabula rasa.
Now, I'm no professional historian myself but I do know a few things here and there, so I spotted some of the glaring errors myself (and of course missed some of the others).
One point which I am almost certain is an error but would like to query you about is this: the book asserted that
[...] villages were frequently innominate [...].
Is it true that medieval villages didn't have names? Is there archival evidence with lists of villages or something like this?