Tell me more ×
History Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for historians and history buffs. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Greece has been subject to many many invasions since the 7th century and there must have been a serious mixing of peoples. In a similar situation, we do not usually consider the French or the Germans to be lineal descendants of the Romans. So can the modern Greeks be said to be actual descendants of the ancient ones?

P.S. Just to make it clear, I have no political axe to grind or anything, just curious.

share|improve this question
4  
Define "related". – Yannis Rizos Jan 14 at 23:45
6  
Felix I'm afraid the only proper answer to your question would be one that would discuss genetic profiling, and I don't really think such an answer would appear on History.SE. To pick just one of your examples, "Italians are rather related to the Romans" is, forgive the bluntness, a rather naive statement.There are biological evidence linking populations in modern Tuscany with the Etruscans and populations in Soutern Italy, mainly Sicily, with Ancient Greeks. – Yannis Rizos Jan 15 at 0:26
1  
Italians are a mix of: Italic, Etruscan, Latin, Illyrian, Gaul, Greek, Carthaginian, Goth, Hun, Lombard, Frank, Arabic, Albanian, Bulgarian, German, French, Spanish - these are the ones I can remember on top of my head. (and Normans, btw) – astabada Jan 15 at 8:53
1  
@FelixGoldberg Fair enough. Related question: how much are modern day Turkish people genetically related to Turkic people? – astabada Jan 15 at 9:36
1  
@FelixGoldberg I think quite the contrary, instead. But I am based only on general appearence: compare Turkish s1.zetaboards.com/anthroscape/topic/4891153/1 with Turkic (e.g. Kazakh) people kazakhwomen.com – astabada Jan 15 at 9:46
show 10 more comments

2 Answers

Until the day comes that we have DNA technology (and theory) advanced to the point where we can look at the genetic lineage of large groups of people, really the best indicator we have for cultural decent is language.

Now language isn't perfect in this regard. For instance, there are a lot of people indigenous to the Americas whose language has been lost (or nearly so), and speak English or Spanish instead. There's also the Pygmies, who probably had a very unique language of their own originally, but today speak Niger-Congo derived languages (albeit with some intriguing holdovers). However, this in itself can be viewed as a good indicator of how thouroughly their culture got absorbed into the culture of the new languages.

So I think it is quite fair to view anybody speaking a modern language derived from ancient Greek as a cultural descendent of the ancient Greeks. It is also quite fair to view anybody speaking a Romance language as cultural descendents of the Romans. As Samuel Johnston said, Language is the pedigree of Nations

share|improve this answer

Simple answer:From ancient times all different ethnicities have been mixed with other ones more or less.The population of Greece has too.But the old Greek populations have never been exterminated, so its safe to say that todays Greeks are at a very high percentage descendants of the ancient Greeks.Other contributions to the Greek genome come from Celts(raided Greece and some settled there),Slavs, and Goths(German tribe).People might think Turks had contributed too, but its the other way around.Todays Turks are mostly Greek in origin or "Anatolian"(non'Greek people who lived in asia minor since ancient times).

share|improve this answer
The implication "no extermination -> very high percentage of descendants" is not very convincing. – Felix Goldberg Jun 17 at 7:36

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.