Take the 2-minute tour ×
History Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for historians and history buffs. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Why did Nero kill his own mother? Was it true that she was dangerous to the point where it was "her life or his?" Did he have "good" reasons (in the sense of being understandable or acceptable at the time) for the killing of other people, and a persecution of the Christians.

share|improve this question
It is a good question. I have wondered about it forever. –  aea2o5 May 8 '13 at 20:14
aea, huic primum nuptiarum dies loco funeris fuit, deductae in domum, in qua nihil nisi luctuosum haberet, erepto per venenum patre et statim fratre; tum ancilla domina validior et Poppaea non nisi in perniciem uxoris nupta; postremo crimen omni exitio gravius. But, sometimes it is not enough. –  user2237 May 8 '13 at 20:19
This varies by the account, but it was probably related to a power struggle between the two. –  American Luke May 8 '13 at 21:49
@TomAu I respectfully disagree. I believe the question contains enough context as is (although more is better). –  American Luke May 8 '13 at 23:59
Evidence that it scarred him? Causality that it ended in the fire of Rome? Any causal linkage between killing Poppaea and the killing of Christians? As this question stands, I vote to close, but if it were rewritten to be about history rather than psychology, I'd reverse my opinion. –  Mark C. Wallace May 9 '13 at 11:33

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.