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If the Crusade was going to help the Byzantines to drive away their enemies, as well as attack the Holy land, why did it turn on the Byzantine Empire?

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closed as not a real question by Louis Rhys, Mark C. Wallace, American Luke, Steven Drennon♦ May 15 '13 at 4:20

It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, overly broad, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. For help clarifying this question so that it can be reopened, visit the help center.If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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aea, can you tell us the situation that led to such a question? Why do you need such a explanation? How did you try to look for such a thing? –  user2237 May 8 '13 at 20:42
    
Sometimes, I like to listen to what other people have to say. the situation is that if the 4th crusade hadn't attacked the Empire, I might be living in Greece. That is why. Also, the crusaders carried off priceless religious objects, which makes me very mad. –  aea2o5 May 8 '13 at 21:24
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This is a "bad" question for the site because it doesn't look like you've done any research. Members of the site prefer to deal with questioners who have PART of the question under their "control" and need help filling some gaps. –  Tom Au May 8 '13 at 21:37
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Personally, I disagree with you @Carlo_R. . There needn't be a reason based on actual problems for every question. See meta.history.stackexchange.com/a/237/961 –  American Luke May 8 '13 at 21:55
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@aea2o5 Per the FAQ, questions answered by a simple Google search or Wikipedia page are off-topic. Does the Wiki page answer your question? If not, please edit your question to be more specific as to what you don't understand and we'll be happy to help you. –  American Luke May 8 '13 at 21:58