Take the 2-minute tour ×
History Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for historians and history buffs. It's 100% free, no registration required.

If I'm a peasant during the dark ages, what surface (in meters (<- I am in advance on my time)) I need to farm to get enough cereal (for bread and brew) ?

how many cereals (in kg (<- again, I'm in advance on my time) this surface will deliver per year ?

share|improve this question
Wikipedia article on British Agricultural Revolution presents a table relevant to the second part of your question (in bushels per acre, though) –  default locale Jun 13 '13 at 15:57
Here's a paper from references: English Agricultural Output And Labour Productivity, 1250–1850 –  default locale Jun 13 '13 at 16:01
but dark ages time period is around 500-1000 AD I guess. Anyway I will take a look –  bob - Master of black magic Jun 13 '13 at 17:39
There wasn't a lot in the way of technological advances in farming, at least not that we're aware of, between the fall of the Roman Empire in the West and the beginning of the period referenced in that paper. There is a huge issue, of course, with just how much we know about that period of time. You could look at yields from ancient Rome and you could look at yields from the mid-Medieval period, and that 500-1000 area could be way, way off from that. There's just not a lot of evidence available, at least not from the West. –  NotVonKaiser Jun 13 '13 at 21:33
Not in technological relations of farming. But in social relations of farming across Europe significant change occurred. Also, taking the Power-Postan work: the prime limit in the dark ages is social distribution of ownership, not a rational subsistence division of land. –  Samuel Russell Jun 13 '13 at 21:46

Your Answer


By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.