Specifically, how did it supplant French as the international language? Even in the height of Pax Britannica, many English upperclassmen still saw French as the more romantic language. How was this status quo changed - was it Britain's empire and dominance of trade, or American dominance of trade and her soldiers being stationed in different parts of the world later on?
closed as off-topic by American Luke, Kobunite, Mark C. Wallace, Lennart Regebro, Steven Drennon♦ Aug 12 at 22:41
This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:
- "Requests for trivia or basic historical facts are off-topic if they can be easily answered by looking up the relevant topic on Wikipedia. We're trying to complement common historical references, not duplicate them." – American Luke, Kobunite, Mark C. Wallace, Lennart Regebro, Steven Drennon