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As is well known, after the WW2 ended, the U.S. imposed a strong program of demilitarization to Germany.

Can anybody explain the reason why the "antique guns and swords from the Franco-Prussian War"—to which Edward Norman Peterson refer in the book "The American Occupation of Germany: Retreat to Victory"—made part of that demilitarization program.

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I ask because I don't understand how these weapons could pose a danger for the U.S.

Note: From my country I don't have free access to the book cited in the question and this is the reason why I didn't post a more expanded quote.

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Perhaps the Americans didn't want the Germans using them for propaganda purposes? Just a guess, but I'll look for a definitive answer. –  American Luke Aug 17 '13 at 20:27
I suspect it was fear of another SA-like movement arming itself with WW-II relics, as the original SA armed itself with WW-I relics. –  Pieter Geerkens Aug 17 '13 at 20:47
Same happened all over Europe. No difference was made based on the age of weapons, ALL were banned. Hence in for example the Netherlands it is to this day illegal to own something like a musket or black powder pistol, a dirk or saber, or a bow unless you have a special permit and/or the weapon has been visibly made impossible to use (a thick lead plug extending from the barrel, the blade bent double, etc.). –  jwenting Aug 18 '13 at 3:15
@jwenting in France "Category 8" (Historical firearms; firearms which have been designed before 1880 and black-powder guns. (Excepted the firearms using black-powder metallic cartridges)) is not prohibited. –  spyder Aug 20 '13 at 5:48
@spyder then France is an exception. In most other countries, any and all firearms are prohibited unless visibly and permanently rendered disabled (and in some, even then a permit is needed and hard to get). –  jwenting Aug 20 '13 at 9:33

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