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The Peleset was one of the Sea Peoples to invade Egypt during the reign of Ramesse III in the fifth and eighth years. They have been identified with the Biblical Philistines ever since the works of Jean-François Champollion in the early 19th century. Like the Sea Peoples in general however, there is no real, firm evidence. The Peleset (Egyptian ...


2

The Greek historian Herodotus is the main primary source of information about the battle of Thermopylae. Most other records of the battle come from historians who lived centuries after the battle. They are all fairly consistent with each other. How did Herodotus get his information? The most common way historians did for centuries. By travelling the world ...


2

There were a lot more than 300 Greeks at the Battle of Thermopylae. The 300 were just the Spartan contingent. According to Herodotus the whole Greek army had about 5,000 men in it from all parts of Greece.


0

Apparently there is (or at least used to be) a theory floating around that the story of the Argo represented organized Greek attempts to expand their maritime influence in that direction (eastward), and the Trojan War represented Anatolian (Hittite?) resistance to that. Here's how Colin McEvedy put it: One might expect to get some useful information on ...


2

The existence of the "sea peoples" is known only from the inscriptions at Medinet Habu, not directly from archaeological remains. As you say certain aspects of artwork of Medinet Habu show, for example, ships that are known to be contemporaneous with LHIIIC which is immediately post Troy, which occurred in the transition between LHIIIB and LHIIIC. There is ...


2

The question is addressed in the book: Eric H. Cline, 1177 B.C.: The Year Civilization Collapsed ISBN: 9780691140896 (can be found free on the internet). I read the book, it indeed discusses this question at length. But my impression is that there is too little reliable information about Sea people, and about "Troyan war" to make any definite ...


5

Well I can't possibly find hidden archives using Google but there are ancient archives. And hopefully this would be a relief to you in some way. And I'm community wiki-ing this answer as this is only a partial answer right now.


4

The town of Novigrad may be the most northern town of Greek origin. Reputedly it was originally founded by the Greeks as Neapolis (new city).


6

Definitely, Crimea (Chersonesos) or some place in its surrounding. Crimea's south coast was part of Roman Empire in 47 BC - 330 AD, and also a part of the Byzantine Empire later.


3

This Map of Greek Colonies in the Adriatic shows that the most northerly posts were Pharos and Issos halfway up the coast. These were secondary settlements from Syracuse and Ionian cities, though. If you eliminate those you are down in Albania.


0

You mention both Greeks and Romans, so I treat each separately below, identifying exactly when they switched to monogamous laws (in the case of the Romans) as you ask: Marriage Under the Greeks Greek society was always monogamous. For example, in the Odyssey, one of the oldest Greek works which was originally transmitted orally, Odysseus has only one wife ...


6

It was probably always the norm, at least in a way that also tolerated concubines. The Ancient Greeks were of course descended from Proto-Indo-Europeans. As early as 1864, French historian Numa Denis Fustel de Coulanges reasoned in his magnus opus, La Cité antique, that marriages were monogamous from the earliest days of the Indo-European peoples. The ...


7

I believe you are thinking of Herostratus, the name of the man for whom the law was created (according to the History, he set fire to the temple of Artemis in Ephesus just in order to be famous and recorded in the History1) More generally, that law (and other similar like those of romans, egyptians and the like) are usually called damnatio memoriae; usually ...



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