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3

The following paper is a pretty detailed treatment: Liberties and Customs of the Port of London Note that the spiritual precursor to the Magna Carta was the Charter of Liberties issued by Henry. Anciently, the City of London and Five Ports were supposed to be free from duty and this supposedly was given by charters from Edward the Confessor. However, no ...


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Here's a lengthy recent paper entitled "Liberties and Customs of the City of London – Are There any Left?", that seems to answer the question in great detail and with lots of citations: http://www.ccsenet.org/journal/index.php/ilr/article/download/28685/17142 The core points: in exchange for frequent loans and gifts of money, the City would often ...


4

I think the problem lies in the "should" of your question - by what criteria? And Richard III actually usurped the throne from his nephews - the "Princes in the Tower" - whether he had them murdered or not, so can hardly be "the last line legitimate" monarch, as you state. IF you believe in a divinely-ordained right of succession, whereby the Crown passes ...


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Once again, it's Google Ngrams to the rescue. Both British and American English show a very strong preference for "Uncle John" over "Uncle Smith" during the Victorian era.


2

I can only answer from a British perspective, but I think the answer is certainly "yes". Jane Eyre always refers to her aunt as "Mrs Reed", and addresses her as " Aunt Reed". First names were far less frequently used in Victorian society - men, and boys at public school (private schools for US readers) almost universally addressed each other by their ...


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I'm sorry, but Mark's answer strikes me as almost entirely wrong. He says that nobles cannot have professions etc - I don't believe that to have ever been the case in England, though it was in some continental countries. He also says that the father "gives" his lands and titles to his eldest son, younger sons join the army or the clergy - well not ...


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Very broad question and it also ignores the fact that feudal and cast-based societies were redistribute wealth different way than present democratic societies. However let me give an angle that may be useful (no data, sorry): The huge economic difference between India and the UK is coming from the significantly earlier industrialization of the UK. However ...


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When people are not happy, they revolt against the rulers, the french revolution followed a famine. So, if you research the number of revolutions and popular uprisings through the centuries, and list them, you may have an indication of living standards by area. It has to be one of the simplest ways to answer your question. it's a direct measurement of ...


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GDP per capita is an indicator of living standards. A solid comparison of share of GDP can be found in this link Since 01AD until today the world's changed quite a lot. But until 1700AD the balance of wealth hadn't. For the past two centuries the share of the world's GDP has shifted to the west to Europe through imperialism, and technological ...



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