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1

The story of marking the houses that you read probably referred to the St. Bartholomew's Day massacre, when the houses of Huguenots were indeed marked by crosses, according to some accounts. If I remember correctly this is also shown in the movie Intolerance by Griffith.


-1

Monarchy was the "default" form of government prior to Greece and Rome. These two countries experimented with "democratic" and "republican" forms of government, respectively. When these forms of government ultimately failed (after considerable success), the world went back to the status quo ante--i.e. monarchy.


4

A Republic is not the same as a Democracy. It is quite unfortunate that the two main political parties in the United States are named Republicans and Democrats since between them, they have managed to corrupt the meaning of both words almost beyond recognition. A google search for 'define:democracy' gives: a system of government by the whole population ...


17

Most likely because it was signed by Sir Robert Howard of Ashtead, Surrey[1], son of Thomas Howard the 1st Earl of Berkshire. As a royalist, he was made Clerk of Patents in Chancery[2] in June 1660, presumably as a reward. He appears to have stayed in that position until 1664[3]. Letters patents, including royal charters, are not signed by the Lord Privy ...


6

1) Long before Rome fell it had abandoned Republicanism. After Diocletian and the Crisis of the Third Century the Emperors no longer felt any need to consult with the Senate. The Senate's role in government and in the legitimacy of the Empire was symbolic. This is the first flaw in the question - the transition between Republic and Monarchy occurred during ...


14

The short answer is that it didn't. Monarchies did not become more common, and Europe in general did not adopt absolutist rule, immediately after the fall of Rome. First, to answer your literal question, monarchies were already common before Rome fell. Imperial Rome was itself a monarchy, even though the imperators were initially careful to maintain the ...


0

The reason why it seems that there are much less declarations of war in the second part of the 20th Century, is that most of the wars involving developed countries were not formally a war between two countries. Indeed, most were formally Civil wars (e.g. Vietnam, Lybia, Yougoslavia), (De)Colonisation (e.g. Vietnam, Algeria). Were no other state was ...



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