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33

The Holy Roman Empire (of the German Nations) was a multi-ethnic, multi-cultural, and multi-lingual coalition from its (unofficial) founding by Charlemagne in the 9th century AD. The German Empire would be a better term in fact, as it was founded and typically ruled by Germanic peoples. (Charlemagne himself was a Frank.) As Voltaire once perceptively ...


25

There was a separation between the noble french and the vulgar Old English. Or as I wrote in my comment: Who cares about the language of peasants I found a nice source for this assumption Middle English (1100-circa 1500 AD): After William the Conqueror, the Duke of Normandy, invaded and conquered England in 1066 AD with his armies and became king, he ...


22

Scotland has gradually changed to using English without being conquered by England. Now I shall temper that a little in that there have been English speaking people living in Scotland just as long as there have in England. The Anglo-Saxons settled south east Scotland as well as north east England. However, English didn't become the majority language for ...


17

You neglect the fact that the 'indigenous' population of France before the Great Migrations (of mainly Germanic tribes) was Gallo-Roman, and by the end of the Roman era (5th century AD), the populace spoke a dialect of Vulgar Latin, which evolved into a distinct "Gallic" Latin over the following centuries. Note however that the ancient Celtic (Gaulish) ...


13

The Roman Empire, at it start under emperors Julius Caesar (44 BC) and Augustus (27 BC) had Latin as its main language, and the one spoken by its elites and leaders. At the end of it, with the capture of Constantinople by the Ottomans in 1453, the prevailing language of the elites was Greek. The main change came under emperor Heraclius (610 to 641), whose ...


12

Frankly a country made up of two large population lobes completely separated by 3000 kilometers of relatively hostile neighbor (or twice that in ocean) is bound to break up eventually. It just logistically can't work out very well, and culturally they are bound to start going their separate ways. I'm unaware of any country like that in history that lasted ...


12

(A little background for others reading this post) In 1868 Emperor Meiji re-established imperial rule. To move Japan into the modern era, he encouraged his people to explore and learn from the more technologically advanced cultures of the world. Even in the late 1800s, English was the language of international commerce. Emperor Meiji's push to learn ...


11

Isra'el means "he struggles with God" and is the name granted to Jacob after he wrestles with an angel in Genesis 32: Then Jacob was left alone, and a man wrestled with him until daybreak. When he saw that he had not prevailed against him, he touched the socket of his thigh; so the socket of Jacob’s thigh was dislocated while he wrestled with him. Then ...


11

The Burgundians were originally a Germanic tribe that settled the area that became known as Burgundy. Because it was so deeply in the heart of "French" territory, it adopted the French language and culture as soon as the Franks started pushing back the Saxons under King Charles Martel, and his grandson, Charlemagne. After the death of the latter, it ...


10

The reasons are so numerous and overlapping. There would have been very little to gain from establishing dominance of French culture. People did not form sympathies or loyalties based on language or culture – that development had to wait for another 700 years or so. It would have been completely impossible to enforce such a ban. There were no such ...


10

When it comes to western Europe, medieval Latin would be closer to an "official" language, especially for international affairs. The Roman Catholic Church's power and influence at the time was unparalleled and several major events of the era started with a Papal Bull. Here's a short list of Papal Bulls that were political in nature and were addressed, ...


9

The concept of praying to the Roman Gods as well as to whatever local deity did mean that the Republic then Empire could assimilate a lot of cultures. After all, they were always worshuiping the same gods, and now they can have access to all the good things that Rome provides -- see Life of Brian's "What did the Romans ever do for us?" speech. Even when the ...


9

ἀνάξε (pronounced ah-NAHX-eh) is the vocative, if I've handled the accent right. I vaguely suspect it might be ἄναξε (AH-nax-eh) - my greek is rusty. Example (Odyssey 24.251): οὐ μὲν ἀεργίης γε ἄναξ ἕνεκ᾽ οὔ σε κομίζει, "It is not on account of your idleness your master does not take care of you"


9

"A Companion to the Ancient Greek Language" By Egbert J. Bakker The only context in which titles can have been at all common in Greek society is addresses from slaves to their masters and mistresses. In literary representations of such addresses δέσποτα “master” and δέσποινα "mistress" frequently occur, but they are by no means the rule, and in ...


9

Here's my proposition, basically it's just a set of Caucasus characteristics making this region especially interesting. By which we mean: there're numerous languages, 3 distinct language families, characteristic just for this region. My first point is, language diversity / fragmentation is normal for regions without a strong state / commerce / any unifying ...


9

"The best thing that Euskara could contribute to the humanity is to die out" - Miguel de Unamuno Euskara, Basque language, is a very interesting subject. It survived on two time levels. First, being an ancient language which is still in use, and now, being a minority language which is still in use in 21st century, where we have to deal with stronger and ...


9

A little background here: there are generally considered to be 5 "races" of man historically native to Africa1: Afro-Asiatic, Niger-Congo, Nilo-Saharan, Pygmy, and Khoisan. Each would have originally had their own native language, and their own native turf: roughly North Africa, Sub-Saharan West Africa, Sub-Saharan Nile Valley, Southern Rainforest, and ...


7

Being that Britain had been exposed to Roman influence for close to a century - Caesar having made first contact with his invasion around 55bc. There was constant diplomatic and trade relations between the British and Romans following that. As Caractacus was a member of the ruling class, it's entirely possible that he spoke Latin to some extent. As ...


7

He believed that once we were free from British rule, we should no longer use British spellings. See NOAH WEBSTER & HIS WORDS, Houghton Mifflin Books for Children, 2012. It won the Golden Kite award for best NF book of 2012 in the U.S. It's for children, but packed with fascinating information on this most interesting of men. He talked with B. Franklin, ...


7

This is an excellent question and this answer is only the "easy" answer based on easily available sources, and should be used primarily as a jumping off point for more research on what is in fact more likely a more complicated reality. The full PDFs of the stenographic protocols of the Zionist congresses from 1897-1935 are available here: ...


7

I am fairly sure this is Mary's cipher (here are similar specimen). It's a fairly simple encryption scheme and was indeed broken by her contemporary enemies in the 16th century.


6

Not hardly. All languages drift over time. Even in this modern age of worldwide mass media, this happens. Linguists figure that West Germanic broke off from the Germanic language root sometime around 1AD. All West Germanic languages (including the ancestors of English, Icelandic, and German) were mutually-intelligible dialects until sometime between the ...


5

Well, written language was, at the time, an economic tool primarily. It was used to record business, political and liturgical transactions, and to cary on a conversation at a distance through correspondance. The things we use it for, instructive texts (such as language instruction courses) and recreational reading, developed much, much later. But! There ...


5

Apart from the fact that they were both Muslims, the people of the former East and West Pakistan were basically different people. The people of West Pakistan were more Caucasian and spoke Urdu, while the people of East Pakistan were more "Asian" and spoke Bengali. In the latter respect, the people of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) were more like their ...


5

Burgundian and Franc-Comtois dialects of the langues d'oïl was certainly spoken by a vast proportion of subjects. I suspect some form of Flemish and early German as well although I am not sure which one. Burgundy eventually split into Belgium, the Netherlands, and France with the core of Burgundy remaining in France.


5

All of the countries under Roman rule gradually migrated away from common Latin into their own distinctive languages. One example Is French, which is a modification and combination of Gaulish and vulgar Latin. England reverted to English as the official tongue of the court sometime in the 13th century after 300 years of french.


5

As backup for Noldorin's point, note that the (French-speaking) Normans conqured England in 1066 and made French the country's official language for centuries. This didn't really change the fact that the vast majority of Englishmen spoke only English, and still do (although with a lot of French loan-words for things mostly of concern to the upper-classes). ...


5

The original is lost, so we don't know. There were copies made in Latin and Old French which are available online... apparently, many copies were made upon its proclamation, in various languages, each intended for a particular audience. Here's a free ebook courtesy of the Google Books scanning project that goes into the difficulties in identifying the ...


5

Latin was the lingua franca of the Church, provided a means of communication between people of different areas. It was also the prescribed language of the liturgy. However not all would have known it (especially laypersons and new trainees) so local languages would also be spoken (and quite possibly commonly spoken in non-official capacity). I seriously ...


5

Some Late Punic texts (ca. 200-400 CE) were written in Latin letters, and so fully vocalized. The best treatment of these is R. M. Kerr, Latino-Punic Epigraphy. FAT ser. 2: 42. Tübingen: Mohr Siebeck, 2010. Punic certainly had vowels; the writing system didn't fully represent them (because the syllable structure of all Semitic languages makes it easy to know ...



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