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South Africa's Apartheid system is probably the most famous example, although they were far from the only former colonial possession in Africa that maintained legal advantages for citizens of European origin into the 20th Century. Under this system only those of entirely European heritage were allowed to vote, all public facilities and schools were ...


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Slavery in the Spanish Philippines was abolished gradually over the 18th and 19th centuries. Slaves had included both Moros captured in war and Africans purchased from the slave trade. After the end of slavery, a legally enforced racial caste system persisted until independence from Spain at the end of the 19th century. The caste system involved (among other ...


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The following may be a little late historically for OP's uses (though it's hard to know what precisely "medieval" means for a number of countries). But these bans all do precede the 18th century dates found in OP's original research. The 17th century saw a number of anti-tobacco laws (source): 1633: TURKEY: Sultan Murad IV orders tobacco users executed ...


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No, they didn't. From their point of view there was now a hostile anti-South majority in Congress. Any attempt by themselves to do things to protect slavery through US Congressional action was doomed to failure. So there was no reason to bother trying. The closest thing they had was allied Copperheads, Northern Democrats who felt the issue wasn't worth ...


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The answer is: It depends on your point of view. In regards to 'resolving the conflict peacefully' - The Southerners never fully believed initially that the North would go to war for the sake of abolition. The issue of the day was: Did secession require an act of Congress to legalise it? The Constitution never mentions secession at all or even a perpetual ...



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