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1

No, they didn't. From their point of view there was now a hostile anti-South majority in Congress. Any attempt by themselves to do things to protect slavery through US Congressional action was doomed to failure. So there was no reason to bother trying. The closest thing they had was allied Copperheads, Northern Democrats who felt the issue wasn't worth ...


0

The answer is: It depends on your point of view. In regards to 'resolving the conflict peacefully' - The Southerners never fully believed initially that the North would go to war for the sake of abolition. The issue of the day was: Did secession require an act of Congress to legalise it? The Constitution never mentions secession at all or even a perpetual ...


2

No, they did not use peaceful or legal means. Often the secession commissions used did not even fully represent the population of the state seceding. Southerners only started worrying about supposed legality after they lost the war and wanted to look better after the fact.


-1

Based upon the information that I have about the subject, the only difference between slave and serfdom is the word. But the condition was virtually the same. The word serf was basically the proper word for slave. Similar to how indentured servant was proper word for slave.


1

This question is historically unanswerable. The wikipedia article is exhaustively sourced for this kind of article, and it didn't uncover the legal intention of the Baron who connived this law. As wikipedia says, "Samuel Midgley in his Halifax and its Gibbet-Law Placed in a True Light,[c] published in 1761, states that the law dates from a time "not in the ...


3

The citation in the Wikipedia entry is an excellent paper on cult law in the US. There are no laws to "monitor" anybody to see when they go wrong; the standard law-enforcement and judicial procedures used to catch other wrong-doers apply to cults as well. Who decides what is a cult anyway? Freedom of expression is other peoples' freedom to say/preach things ...



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