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20

The question is illogical because there was no such thing as a viking in the days of the undivided Roman Empire or of the Western Roman Empire. A viking is defined as a Scandinavian pirate or sea raider during the period of about 795 to 1100 AD at the widest. It is always incorrect to capitalize viking and use it as an ethnic word instead of an ...


18

It looks like it might fit a padlock of a design similar to this: The padlock is locked by inserting the shackle (u-shaped part) into the body so that the ward springs (arrowhead shaped part of the shackle) clip into it. The key is used by inserting it into the slot of the body so that the holes in the key align with the shackle and any other pins in the ...


14

10th-century writer Ahmad ibn Fadlan describes voluntary human sacrifice in his account of a Viking funeral: When their chieftain dies, his family ask his slave-girls and slave-boys, “Who among you will die with him?” and some of them reply, “I shall.” Having said this, it becomes incumbent upon the person and it is impossible ever to turn ...


10

There are many theories on why the Viking expansion occurred and there is no real consensus on which (or which combination) is the correct one. This particular explaination, that Pagan Scandinavia attacked Christian Europe in an ideological response to the Carolingian expansion, is merely yet another theory on this highly contentious topic. Although it seems ...


7

This is an interesting and difficult question. Unfortunately, not much is known of Viking equipment, including clothing, because such military goods were relatively expensive and rare. For example, in those times (800-1000 AD) it was common for people to go barefoot, shoes were so expensive. Written works from the time rarely discuss viking clothing in any ...


7

There are two ways to answer this question, the easy way and the hard way. The easy way is to use language as an indication of lineage. Language is probably the foremost component of a culture, so this is a valid and typical approach. The language Russians use ("Russian") is Slavic, while the language the Varangians used was Germanic. Historically it ...


6

I presume you're not talking about the Byzantine half of the Roman Empire here. Those ties are well known. So, taking the subject line of your question, Romans of the western half of the Roman Empire meeting Vikings would be impossible because Rome fell before the label Viking was generally applied to Scandinavians. Taking the text of your question, the ...


6

I believe this may be a reference to the Blood Eagle practice. There is in fact a huge ongoing controversy over whether it was real. For example, one book I have on the Vikings from the 1960s asserts it as common practice (complete with a detailed description), while another I have offhandedly asserts it was made up by Christians. On the pro side, it is ...


5

As Yannis says, The "10th-century writer Ahmad ibn Fadlan describes voluntary human sacrifice in his account of a Viking funeral", but note that the designation he uses is "the rus" and it is situated at the Bulghars in the Volga area. Since what became Russia has its origins when vikings from Scandinavia came to the area, and quickly became slavic ...


3

Aside from some short inscriptions on stone, no. The received texts of the sagas generally all date to after about 1000 A.D. and were written or copied at times when Christianization had taken hold. That said, however, it is important to remember that it is likely that the received texts may, in many cases be close copies of manuscripts written during ...


3

I can't find any evidence of Harald being shot in the back (other than figuratively). In fact, the only roughly contemporary account of his death that I can find in some casual searching is from the Chronicon Roskildense probably written in the 12th century. Note that the Chronicon was likely the earliest "history" as opposed to "saga", although being ...


3

Leaving aside the questions whether Scandinavians during the first centuries CE could be called "vikings", the answer is that they did encounter them. The Cimbrians were a people who invaded Italy and fought the Romans about 100 BCE. The Cimbrians are said to have come from the Cimbrian peninsula, identified with Jylland in Denmark. As for Roman invasions ...


3

"Vikings" were not a "race"! Neither were they a nation or an ethnos. "Vikings" was a name given in the Middle Ages to Scandinavian warriors who attacked many places in Europe. Scandinavian warriors not only plundered, they also settled in various countries, including Britain. England experienced several waves of invasion from Northern Europe, after the ...


2

Within the scope of artistic licence it seems to be fairly close to what Roman York is believed to have looked like. Given that Vikings didn't have a reputation for being much in the way of civil engineers it's probably reasonable to assume that Jorvik had much the same layout as the Roman and subsequent Anglo-Saxon versions. That being said, "accuracy" of ...


1

No they did not. The romans, I suspect, never came up that far north. They did, however deal with the similar goths.


1

First of all, it should be noted that Norse mythology was only the longest-lasting offshoot of a much wider spread Germanic mythology. If we restrict ourselves to Norse contemporary sources, then there are only short inscriptions and pictures. For the Germanic mythology, there is one contemporary non-Christian source that must be mentioned: Tacitus. In his ...


1

Firstly, the word viking does not refer to a culture, it particularly means raider. Scandinavians 'went viking'. When it comes to raping, pillaging and burning; "the less, the merrier". One lord with his small band of warriors (no one keeps a large army on the payroll) leisurely loots a place and shares it. The Saxons don't have a fearsome force of ...



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