276 reputation
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seen Sep 3 at 15:28

Jul
22
awarded  Nice Answer
May
24
comment What caused Yugoslavia to switch sides early in World War II?
Not sure why this is an accepted answer. Branko gave a much better one: history.stackexchange.com/a/12884/1250
Apr
13
awarded  Civic Duty
Mar
14
comment Why did modern “Romania” remain the most “Roman” part of the Balkans?
Modern day Romania (Dacia) was abandoned by Romans during the rule of Aurelian - it was never a part of what we today call "the Byzantine Empire".
Aug
22
awarded  Yearling
Sep
27
comment The diminishing role of the “family name” throughout the Byzantine Empire
@E1Suave: Eh, never mind - as I said it is really a matter of convention. Strictly speaking, there was no separate "Eastern" and "Western" Empire before 800 AD, but (some) historians like to make a break between "classical" Rome and "Byzantine Empire" so they pick various dates for that purpose.
Sep
27
awarded  Commentator
Sep
27
comment The diminishing role of the “family name” throughout the Byzantine Empire
I know it is really a matter of convention, but counting the beginning of Eastern Roman Empire from 476 makes no sense.
Sep
12
comment Is there any evidence that the catholic church reduced innovation during the middle ages?
It is a stretch to say Hypatia was "killed by order of the Church". The Church simply had no such power in Roman Empire, even after Christianity became the state religion. Hypatia was killed by a mob because of her perceived connection to the prefect of Alexandria.
Sep
2
answered Why didn't France and UK invade Germany September 3rd 1939?
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
" No one would speak of two or more Roman Empires in the days of the sons of Constantine; yet their political relation to one another was exactly the same as that of Arcadius to Honorius or of Leo I to Anthemius. However independent of each other p18 or even unfriendly the rulers from time to time may have been, the unity of the Empire which they ruled was theoretically unaffected. And the theory made itself felt in practice.
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
"But it is not merely a question of constitutional theory. The unity was not only formally recognised; it was maintained in practical ways. In the first place, the Imperial colleagues issued their laws under their joint names, and general laws promulgated by either and transmitted for publication to the chancery of his associate were valid throughout the whole Empire.53 In the second place, on the death of either Emperor, the Imperial authority of the surviving colleague was constitutionally extended to the whole Empire until a successor was elected.
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
"To men of the fourth and fifth centuries such a mode of speech would have been unintelligible, and it is better to avoid it. To them there was and could be only one Roman Empire; and we should emphasise and not obscure this point of view.
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
"A few words may be said here about the unity of the Empire. From the reign of Diocletian to the last quarter of the fifth century,the Empire is repeatedly divided into two or more geographical sections—most frequently two, an Eastern and a Western—each governed by its own ruler. From A.D. 395 to A.D. 476, or rather 480, the division into two realms is practically continuous; each realm goes its own way,and the relations between them are sometimes even hostile. It has, naturally enough, proved an irresistible temptation to many modern writers to speak of them as if they were different Empires.
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
@SevenSidedDie: I suggest you read Chapter I of Bury's "History of the Later Roman Empire". Here it is online: penelope.uchicago.edu/Thayer/E/Roman/Texts/secondary/BURLAT/1*.html
Aug
25
comment Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
@SevenSidedDie: Not at all. The Roman Empire had two emperors long before what we call the "division" of the Roman Empire. The Empire was never devided into two separate states and when the office of the Emperor of the West was abolished, the Emperor of the East remained the sole ruler of the Empire.
Aug
24
awarded  Citizen Patrol
Aug
24
awarded  Critic
Aug
24
answered Why did the Western Roman Empire collapse but not the Eastern Roman Empire?
Aug
23
awarded  Teacher