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1d
comment Why did the the East-Pakistanis oppose Urdu as their national language while Indians accepted Hindi as theirs?
Begali is the majority language in Bangladesh and West Bengal and is mutually intelligible across the India-Bangladesh border (like Punjabi across the India-Pakistan border). Sylheti has a different vocabulary, phonology and (until 1971) script. The lack of mutual intelligibility has been particularly noted in areas of Sylheti migration such as the east-end of London, especially among older migrants.
1d
comment Why did the the East-Pakistanis oppose Urdu as their national language while Indians accepted Hindi as theirs?
Sylheti and the others are in fact different languages to Bengali (though with a common ancestry). They are regarded as dialects for political reasons: if one of the reasons for the existence of Bangladesh was the use of Bengali, then it is convenient to believe that the other languages used in Bangladesh are types of Bengali.
Jul
9
comment Why do some countries call Germany “Alman” too?
It is worth noting that while Italian uses Germania for the country, it uses tedesco (cognate with deutch) as the adjective and for a German person. Meanwhile English uses Dutch as the adjective for a neighbouring country.
Jul
1
awarded  Custodian
Jul
1
reviewed Approve suggested edit on Why did East India Company accept Government of India Act 1858?
Jun
30
answered Why did East India Company accept Government of India Act 1858?
May
27
comment Is Taiwan always a part of People's Republic of China?
The "People's Republic of China" was founded in 1949. Its government in Beijing has at all times since then claimed to be the legitimate government of all of China (denied by the "Republic of China" government in Taipei) and that Taiwan is part of China (not denied by the government in Taipei). The government in Beijing has not exercised rule over Taiwan since the founding of the People's Republic of China.
Mar
31
comment How did British queens get power over kings despite a male-dominant society?
Philip of Spain (Mary Tudor's husband) and William of Orange (Mary Stuart's husband) were each King of England etc. where their wives were the heirs, while George of Denmark, Albert of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha and Philip of Greece were not, so it is difficult to say that there has been a consistent rule.
Feb
20
comment What is the historical background of the current Ukraine crisis?
West Ukraine was mainly conquered by Poland in 1919 rather than by the Soviet Union (who took the rest of Ukraine).
Nov
11
comment Why did the welfare state succeed in Bismarck Germany but lagged in 20th-century Britain?
@LennartRegebro: You said "the welfare state succeeded in Germany but failed in Britain", so I hardly started the discussion. Private spending on health is also higher in Germany than the UK, so perhaps Germans find their insurance system less sufficient than UK citizens find their state health provision.
Nov
10
comment Why did the welfare state succeed in Bismarck Germany but lagged in 20th-century Britain?
There is a slight problem here: German healthcare is significantly more expensive than UK healthcare (total health expenditure is 11.3% of GDP in Germany compared with 9.4% in the UK; German GDP per capita is higher too) but life expectancy at birth is marginally higher in the UK (81.1 years in the UK compared with 80.8 in Germany). It seems that the larger number of health interventions in Germany do not actually produce healthier people.
Nov
1
comment Could invocation and revocation of bastardry be used to manipulate primogeniture?
Henry VIII did interesting things with his daughters and might have considered doing so with his son Henry Fitzroy
Oct
22
comment Have famous rabbis ever converted to Islam?
@Coelacanth - Indeed, and for his followers he removed some of the pre-Messianic rituals such as fasting on the Tenth of Tevet, so they accepted him as able to give legal rulings.
Oct
21
answered What was El Greco's relationship with the Spanish Inquisition?
Oct
20
answered Who is this person on the picture?
Oct
16
awarded  Commentator
Oct
16
comment Have famous rabbis ever converted to Islam?
@Felix Goldberg: Whatever you wish - you asked for a famous rabbi. You may have fallen into DVK and Coelacanth's "no true Scotsman" trap. In fact his claims to authority not restricted to a small group, but instead divided Jewish communities with most synagogues praying for him, and were for example endorsed by the Chief Rabbi of Amsterdam.
Oct
15
answered Have famous rabbis ever converted to Islam?
Oct
13
comment Is whig history generally considered to be 'bad' history?
A Whig historian would not have claimed that a parliamentary monarchy was a historical inevitability, but that it was an ideal situation which the British achieved through certain steps in their history and which other countries (notably France) failed to achieve. But events such as the English Civil War were only positive in that they taught later English monarchs and political classes to avoid absolutism either in an individual or in an ideology.
Oct
11
awarded  Yearling