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location India
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seen Aug 6 at 13:54

May
31
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
Frankly, I don't think this discussion can lead anywhere useful. I'm ending it from my side.
May
31
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
Also, do you realize how nonsensical your comments are? "Why are the weekdays named in that order?" "Because the grahas were ordered that way." "How do we know the grahas were ordered that way?" "Because the weekdays are named in that order." Your reasoning is circular.
May
31
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
They were called the Navagraha (nine graha) for a reason. Rāhu and Ketu, which we'd call lunar nodes today, were considered heavenly bodies on par with the other seven by ancient Indians. If the week was inspired by Indian astrology (which I'm fairly sure it wasn't), we should have had a nine-day week not a seven-day one.
May
31
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
Nice answer, now prove you didn't make it up. Where's the evidence that (a) ancient Indians considered that to be the order of the Navagraha and (b) the order of weekdays was derived from the order of the Navagraha, and not the other way round? A Navagraha-based answer would raise questions about (a) why the Indian week has seven days instead of nine (b) why the Greeks used to same sequence of weekdays, even though they assigned the heavenly bodies a different order (ctrl-F Chaldean)
May
30
awarded  Commentator
May
30
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
Can you point out the sentences in that article which you think answer this question?
Apr
30
awarded  Nice Question
Feb
22
accepted What is the current consensus on the origins of the Brahmi script?
Dec
16
comment What is the origin of Indian weekday names?
Interesting, but how is that relevant? The question wasn't about the Norse names. The fact remains that (except in Sanskrit) the Indian days are named after the same celestial bodies as the corresponding Graeco-Roman days, even if the gods associated with those bodies are not perfectly equivalent.
Dec
9
awarded  Yearling
May
28
awarded  Scholar
May
28
accepted Did “droit du seigneur” actually exist in medieval Europe?
Apr
10
awarded  Critic
Dec
19
awarded  Nice Question
Dec
17
awarded  Nice Answer
Dec
16
revised Did “droit du seigneur” actually exist in medieval Europe?
closing bracket
Dec
16
awarded  Quorum
Dec
16
comment How does Göbekli Tepe fit into the current picture of society development?
@spiceyokooko You're assuming that the switch from perfectly nomadic hunter-gatherers to perfectly sedentary farmers was instantaneous, without any intermediate stages. That's unrealistic.
Dec
15
awarded  Self-Learner
Dec
15
comment Why is the Qing Dynasty in China considered Feudalistic?
I thought droit du seigneur didn't actually exist. Am I missing something?