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bio website paleografie.tk
location Amsterdam, The Netherlands
age
visits member for 2 years, 11 months
seen Aug 7 at 23:35

Oct
28
comment Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
@Lennart: You are being selective. There are several definitions of "child" on your Wiki link. The Greeks didn't even have a word for the modern phenomenon (Greek paedophilia has no necessary sexual meaning), so of course they didn't think of it as modern Westerners do. If the question is "was it paedophilia to the Greeks?", then there would be no meaningful answer, because it is an anachronism. Is it unreasonable to explain Greek sex under 18 to such a question? I never said it was paedophilia; I just mentioned the ages and left it open to the reader to define it.
Oct
28
comment Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
@Lennart: "Any sexual interest in children" does not fit with Athenian practice? How does it not? Men performed sexual acts with children.
Oct
28
comment Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
Wikipedia has several definitions: As a medical diagnosis, pedophilia (or paedophilia) is defined as a psychiatric disorder in adults or late adolescents (persons age 16 or older) typically characterized by a primary or exclusive sexual interest in prepubescent children (generally age 13 years or younger, though onset of puberty may vary). ... In popular usage, pedophilia means any sexual interest in children or the act of child sexual abuse, often termed "pedophilic behavior.".
Oct
28
comment Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
@Lennart: Then what is this difference you are talking about? You mention no definition, and the word "pedophilia" means different things to different people, so I have no idea what either you or the OP have in mind. I tried to circumvent this problem by clearly mentioning ages all through my answer, so that people may put their own labels on them. I'd appreciate it if you described this difference to me and how you would say it.
Oct
27
comment Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
@Lennart: It depends on your definition of pedophilia. The question didn't provide one, but it mentioned Greece, so all information about sex with children seemed relevant.
Oct
27
comment When and how did the idea of a “class-less” society originate in the United States?
Ideas in France and America about equality influenced each other in various complex ways (I don't know the details). If I had to hazard a guess, I'd say that French enlightened culture exerted greater influence on America than vice versa, considering the extensive production of enlightened literature in France prior to the Revolutions; but it is remarkable that America went first. I believe the democracies of Europe, while no doubt also influenced by the American Revolution, mostly looked to French ideas in this respect; e.g. the Am. Rev. does not figure prominently in Dutch history books.
Oct
27
awarded  Critic
Oct
26
revised Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
added 1 characters in body
Oct
26
revised When did homosexuality become unacceptable in Europe?
added 603 characters in body
Oct
26
revised When did homosexuality become unacceptable in Europe?
added 603 characters in body
Oct
26
answered Pedophilia in ancient Greek and Roman culture
Oct
26
awarded  Commentator
Oct
26
comment What were the acceptance criteria in universities of medieval Europe?
P.S. Universities in most of continental Europe are still controlled by the state and by no means private, some more directly than others. That is why tuition fees are usually between zero and about a tenth of those in America.
Oct
26
comment What were the acceptance criteria in universities of medieval Europe?
" ... These structural differences created other characteristics. At the Bologna university the students ran everything—a fact that often put teachers under great pressure and disadvantage. In Paris, teachers ran the school; thus Paris became the premiere spot for teachers from all over Europe. Also, in Paris the main subject matter was theology, so control of the qualifications awarded was in the hands of an external authority - the Chancellor of the diocese. In Bologna, where students chose more secular studies, the main subject was law." I believe the Bologna model was/became quite common.
Oct
26
comment What were the acceptance criteria in universities of medieval Europe?
From Wiki: "Universities were generally structured along three types, depending on who paid the teachers. The first type was in Bologna, where students hired and paid for the teachers. The second type was in Paris, where teachers were paid by the church. Oxford and Cambridge were predominantly supported by the crown and the state, a fact which helped them survive the Dissolution of the Monasteries in 1538 and the subsequent removal of all the principal Catholic institutions in England. ..."
Oct
26
comment How did Edward Misselden become a deputy-governor of a merchant company at 15?
P.S. This isn't really relevant, but I find that FAQ a little bit misleading, in that a person's floruit is rarely marked as a single year, but always as a period as comprehensive as possible. If one knows only that author Fiddlebum published a work in the year 174, one should not say Fuddlebum (fl. 174), but rather Fiddlebum (late 2nd century) and mention the work separately, or perhaps Fiddlebum (published De Navi in 174).
Oct
26
comment How did Edward Misselden become a deputy-governor of a merchant company at 15?
+1 Good research! The abbreviation "fl." is used in many languages, including English (so says the OED) for Latin floruit, which means "flourished" (it is a perfect form). This marks the period during which a certain person or organization did its deeds worth noting, like the good paintings of a painter. It does not mark the period of his life. It is often the most relevant period historically if you want to compare dates to see whether a certain person could have been involved in a certain event or influenced some other person.
Oct
26
comment Why did Huldrych Zwingli and Martin Luther stand for clerical marriage?
Very well possible they based it on such passages. If only we had proof!
Oct
26
comment Captured nobles in medieval times, were they always ransomed?
+1 Note that Charles of Orleans was kept confined in England after his capture at Agincourt, and Henry wouldn't have him ransomed, because he was deemed too important an opponent. He was kept in England for twenty-four years, because he posed a serious risk as the leader of the important Orleans-Armagnac faction and was a duke of royal blood.
Oct
26
comment At what point was the Byzantine Empire's decline irreversible?
+1 This is an comprehensive and thoughtful answer that deserves the checkmark, especially for its Such thinking results from the simplistic model of an empire's history as consisting of two segements: "growth" and "decline".