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According to Wikipedia citing Frank McLynn, Napoleon, Pimlico 1998 Ch 21, p482, strikes were forbidden by Napoleon I in exchange for a guarantee by employers that wages would remain high.

How did this guarantee work?
Did Napoleon actually manage to ensure that wages remained high?
Did he at least act towards that goal?

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    I imagine his wars caused a labor shortage which raised wages.
    – Clint Eastwood
    Jun 10, 2015 at 12:54
  • Define "high"..
    – Tyler Durden
    Jun 10, 2015 at 13:22
  • Higher than before
    – Ne Mo
    Jun 10, 2015 at 15:32
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    I can't see anything on the referenced page which states that Napoleon required a guarantee from employeers that workers wages would remain high. It merely says that "[Napoleon's] police sometimes prevented employers from lowering wages as part of a carefully calculated balancing act". Also, as noted in an earlier comment, "conscription produced a shortage of workers and forced wage rates up".
    – Steve Bird
    Jun 10, 2015 at 16:25

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The referenced page which states that Napoleon required a guarantee from employers that workers wages would remain high. It merely says that "[Napoleon's] police sometimes prevented employers from lowering wages as part of a carefully calculated balancing act".

Also, it can be imagined that wars caused a labor shortage which raised wages.

(based entirely on comments from Clint and Steve)

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