Skip to main content
15 events
when toggle format what by license comment
Aug 5, 2015 at 1:11 answer added oswana21 timeline score: 0
Dec 4, 2014 at 23:31 comment added Felix Goldberg Arguably, this question is now moot because the Russian takeover of Crimea set in motion a Russian infiltration and meddling with in East Ukraine which has turned very bloody. So the premise is invalidated.
Dec 4, 2014 at 13:15 review Close votes
Dec 7, 2014 at 23:01
Dec 4, 2014 at 12:56 answer added March Ho timeline score: 4
Nov 29, 2014 at 16:29 answer added Alex timeline score: 3
Apr 16, 2014 at 20:24 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/456528674372587520
Apr 14, 2014 at 12:22 vote accept Andrew Kloos
Apr 9, 2014 at 13:49 answer added Alpedar timeline score: 10
Apr 8, 2014 at 23:57 comment added andy256 Wow! There was no fighting because h the Ukrainians decided not to. Nobody sends an armed forceand expects no killing.
Apr 8, 2014 at 22:51 answer added NL7 timeline score: 14
Apr 8, 2014 at 20:43 answer added Oldcat timeline score: 4
Apr 8, 2014 at 20:06 comment added Andrew Kloos I'm saying Russia took away a reason for the West to use a military option by not using deadly force. Are there other examples of this?
Apr 8, 2014 at 19:30 comment added MCW So you're looking for examples of places where troops took over a country without killing anyone? other than Texas, Saudi Arabia, England, Zheng he in Maylaysia, perhaps the Dutch purchase of New York, and many colonial examples?
Apr 8, 2014 at 19:12 comment added T.E.D. What is your evidence that it would have been any less successful if they had fought? If left as a bald statement like this, its going to be tough not to address that assertion. If that isn't what you want to happen, you might consider removing it.
Apr 8, 2014 at 18:55 history asked Andrew Kloos CC BY-SA 3.0