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In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil NaruNadu and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?


Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?


Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Nadu and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?


Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

15 added 20 characters in body
source | link

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

So the question is, Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

 

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

So the question is, Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

 

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

14 added 86 characters in body
source | link

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamilprotests in Tamil Naru and (with some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam)?

So the question is, Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and (with some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam)?

So the question is, Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West, (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan.

Language Distribution of Modern-day Pakistan.

This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan. This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, so as Hindi in India.

enter image description here

My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan decide to revolt so early (only within 5 years of the formation of the country of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Naru and some insignificant protests in Barak Valley, Assam?

So the question is, Was it an Indian conspiracy to agitate the people of East Pakistan or was it the East Pakistani population failing to understand the value of keeping the country united?

Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language".

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    Tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/268393837368598528
6 removed several un needed lines and made the question flow better. Also, I fixed grammer in the title. I hope I did not sabotage the intent though.
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    Notice added Draw attention by user806
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