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Mar 28, 2013 at 16:02 vote accept ihtkwot
Jun 27, 2012 at 4:36 history tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/217838717543526400
Jun 26, 2012 at 17:09 answer added RI Swamp Yankee timeline score: 8
Jun 26, 2012 at 3:42 comment added Samuel Russell "Nations" are considered, by mainstream scholarship, to have been constructed largely over the 18th and 19th century as a reaction to the Westphalian state system and the development of language specific elites in urban areas. There were no "English" as such prior to the Napoleonic wars, there were no "French" as such prior to the Napoleonic wars. Correspondingly, the concept of a "state" is tied up with the post-Westphalian geographic identity with absolute sovereignty. Prior to the 17th century, "states" didn't exist. These are both modern terms, and pre-modern uses are anachronistic.
Jun 26, 2012 at 3:30 history edited ihtkwot CC BY-SA 3.0
changed countries to nation states to clarify confusion
Jun 26, 2012 at 3:29 comment added ihtkwot @SamuelRussell I appreciate your comment. Can you give me an example of what the term "nation state" means prior to the Peace of Westphalia, and the rise of nationalism? Maybe then I can better phrase the question to address your concerns. It doesn't seem like jfrankcarr and yourself had difficulty identifying that I was going for nation states with the meaning that you both assumed.
Jun 26, 2012 at 2:58 comment added Samuel Russell This question is poorly specified in terms of theory, in particular it fails to react adequately to "nationalism" and the "Westphalian state." This has resulted in the quality of answers below as a "discussion" over the very points the original question fails to specify.
Jun 25, 2012 at 14:24 answer added Anixx timeline score: 10
Jun 25, 2012 at 11:45 answer added jfrankcarr timeline score: 4
Jun 25, 2012 at 5:32 answer added Samuel Russell timeline score: 4
Jun 25, 2012 at 4:51 history asked ihtkwot CC BY-SA 3.0