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This answerThis answer to this questionquestion states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answerother answer to this other questionother question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin medieval Western Europe? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, noblemen of different native languages use Latin among themselves? Would merchants?

The original version of this question asked about 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia, which is what I’m particularly interested in. But as it has attracted no answers, I’m broadening the question, so maybe someone will know something about some corner of Europe. I’m limiting it to Western Europe, as I think in the Orthodox East hardly anyone would know Latin.

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin medieval Western Europe? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, noblemen of different native languages use Latin among themselves? Would merchants?

The original version of this question asked about 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia, which is what I’m particularly interested in. But as it has attracted no answers, I’m broadening the question, so maybe someone will know something about some corner of Europe. I’m limiting it to Western Europe, as I think in the Orthodox East hardly anyone would know Latin.

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin medieval Western Europe? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, noblemen of different native languages use Latin among themselves? Would merchants?

The original version of this question asked about 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia, which is what I’m particularly interested in. But as it has attracted no answers, I’m broadening the question, so maybe someone will know something about some corner of Europe. I’m limiting it to Western Europe, as I think in the Orthodox East hardly anyone would know Latin.

2 Broadening the question to medieval Europe
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Who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberiamedieval Western Europe?

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberiamedieval Western Europe? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, a Galician and a Castilian resort to Latin, or would they communicate using one or a mixturenoblemen of the vernaculars (much as a Portuguese and a Spaniard might do today)different native languages use Latin among themselves? Would merchants?

I understand I’m askingThe original version of this question asked about a rather particular point10th – 12th century Christian Iberia, which is what I’m particularly interested in. So I welcome information aboutBut as it has attracted no answers, I’m broadening the situation elsewhere inquestion, so maybe someone will know something about some corner of Europe or slightly earlier or later. I’m limiting it to Western Europe, which might not be too different from what was happeningas I think in Iberiathe Orthodox East hardly anyone would know Latin.

Who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia?

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, a Galician and a Castilian resort to Latin, or would they communicate using one or a mixture of the vernaculars (much as a Portuguese and a Spaniard might do today)?

I understand I’m asking about a rather particular point. So I welcome information about the situation elsewhere in Europe or slightly earlier or later, which might not be too different from what was happening in Iberia.

Who would have a good or fair command of Latin in medieval Western Europe?

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin medieval Western Europe? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, noblemen of different native languages use Latin among themselves? Would merchants?

The original version of this question asked about 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia, which is what I’m particularly interested in. But as it has attracted no answers, I’m broadening the question, so maybe someone will know something about some corner of Europe. I’m limiting it to Western Europe, as I think in the Orthodox East hardly anyone would know Latin.

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Who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia?

This answer to this question states Latin was the language of diplomacy in medieval Western Europe, but this does not imply that royalty or nobility themselves knew Latin: it would suffice that a few clerks and emissaries did. This other answer to this other question states that much of the lower clergy would know little or no Latin, but this in turn does not mean knowledge of Latin was not common among the nobility.

So who would have a good or fair command of Latin in 10th – 12th century Christian Iberia? Would there be conversations in Latin among royalty or nobility. Would, say, a Galician and a Castilian resort to Latin, or would they communicate using one or a mixture of the vernaculars (much as a Portuguese and a Spaniard might do today)?

I understand I’m asking about a rather particular point. So I welcome information about the situation elsewhere in Europe or slightly earlier or later, which might not be too different from what was happening in Iberia.