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We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that India also has a long tradition of its own legal principles. For example, we know from John Keay: India --A History that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, ]. But how did this law function and how was it administered? Where did it originate --did the Mughals bring it with them or was it indigenous to India?

Therefore, I have four targetedthree three questions for the legal framework in India's ancient period and early middle kingdom period (i.e., 2nd century BCE - 7th century CE):

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law? A uniform law would mean that different kingdoms and janpads would follow roughly similar laws. Non uniformity would mean widely different laws in different realms.
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?  
  3. Were there lawyers and trained magistrates?
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?  

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that India also has a long tradition of its own legal principles. For example, we know from John Keay: India --A History that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, ]. But how did this law function and how was it administered? Where did it originate --did the Mughals bring it with them or was it indigenous to India?

I have four targeted questions for India's ancient period and early middle kingdom period (i.e., 2nd century BCE - 7th century CE):

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law?
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?  
  3. Were there lawyers and trained magistrates?
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?  

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that India also has a long tradition of its own legal principles. For example, we know from John Keay: India --A History that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, ]. But how did this law function and how was it administered? Where did it originate --did the Mughals bring it with them or was it indigenous to India?

Therefore, I have three three questions for the legal framework in India's ancient period and early middle kingdom period (i.e., 2nd century BCE - 7th century CE):

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law? A uniform law would mean that different kingdoms and janpads would follow roughly similar laws. Non uniformity would mean widely different laws in different realms.
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?
  3. Were there lawyers and trained magistrates?
2 Narrowed the scope of this question to only target the ancient period.
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What was the legal framework in Ancient and Medieval India?

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that India also has a long tradition of its own legal principles. For example, we know from John Keay: India --A History that during the Mughal periodMughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, John Keay: India]. But how did this law function and how was it administered? Where did it originate --A History].did the Mughals bring it with them or was it indigenous to India?

I have four generaltargeted questions for India's ancient period and early middle kingdom period (i.e., 2nd century BCE - 7th century CE):

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law?
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?
  3. Were there lawyers and trained magistrates?  
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?

And I ask these four general questions for each of the following three periods (thus in total 12 questions --let me know if you want to split them into different posts).

  1. India from 6th century CE - 11th century CE (when it was divided amongst many smaller kingdoms for most times).
  2. India from 11th century CE - 15th century CE (pre Mughal Islamic period in the North; divided rule in the South).
  3. India from 16th century CE - 18th century CE (post Sher Shah Suri period --when the reforms started to the beginnings of the Company rule).

What was the legal framework in Ancient and Medieval India?

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, John Keay: India --A History].

I have four general questions:

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law?
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?
  3. Were there lawyers?  
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?

And I ask these four general questions for each of the following three periods (thus in total 12 questions --let me know if you want to split them into different posts).

  1. India from 6th century CE - 11th century CE (when it was divided amongst many smaller kingdoms for most times).
  2. India from 11th century CE - 15th century CE (pre Mughal Islamic period in the North; divided rule in the South).
  3. India from 16th century CE - 18th century CE (post Sher Shah Suri period --when the reforms started to the beginnings of the Company rule).

What was the legal framework in Ancient India?

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that India also has a long tradition of its own legal principles. For example, we know from John Keay: India --A History that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, ]. But how did this law function and how was it administered? Where did it originate --did the Mughals bring it with them or was it indigenous to India?

I have four targeted questions for India's ancient period and early middle kingdom period (i.e., 2nd century BCE - 7th century CE):

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law?
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?
  3. Were there lawyers and trained magistrates?
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?
    Notice removed Authoritative reference needed by Community
    Bounty Ended with no winning answer by Community
    Notice added Authoritative reference needed by Apoorv Khurasia
    Bounty Started worth 50 reputation by Apoorv Khurasia
    Tweeted twitter.com/#!/StackHistory/status/234663971314073601
1
source | link

What was the legal framework in Ancient and Medieval India?

We all know the immense contribution ancient Roman, medieval Roman (or Byzantine), and pre-modern HRE cannon law has made to the modern world. These empires relied on a written constitution (or code) and trained magistrates, lawyers, and notaries [cf. Judith Herrin, Byzantium: The Surprising Life of a Medieval Empire; Peter H. Wilson, Europe's Tragedy: A New History of the Thirty Years War]. Much of today's European civil law can trace its origin to those cannons and much of our current legal framework (courts, judges, constitution, senate, and lawyers) are a direct copy of their ideas.

I know that during the Mughal period, the administration was uniform and structured and that there existed courts (known as kotwaalis) and magistrates (or kotwaals) [cf, John Keay: India --A History].

I have four general questions:

  1. Was there a (more or less) uniform law?
  2. Was this law (or these laws) documented?
  3. Were there lawyers?
  4. How effective were these courts? (less being outright civil violence and highly being close to the standards observed in the 15th century HRE)?

And I ask these four general questions for each of the following three periods (thus in total 12 questions --let me know if you want to split them into different posts).

  1. India from 6th century CE - 11th century CE (when it was divided amongst many smaller kingdoms for most times).
  2. India from 11th century CE - 15th century CE (pre Mughal Islamic period in the North; divided rule in the South).
  3. India from 16th century CE - 18th century CE (post Sher Shah Suri period --when the reforms started to the beginnings of the Company rule).