Timeline for Was hay invented only in the Middle Ages in Europe?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
10 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jan 18, 2017 at 2:49 | comment | added | Cerberus | The Greeks also had hay, as, I think, did anyone who domesticated herbivores. archimedes.fas.harvard.edu/cgi-bin/… archimedes.fas.harvard.edu/cgi-bin/… Incidentally, I wonder why people would take the OP's physicist's remarks on history seriously. | |
| Aug 30, 2016 at 14:04 | comment | added | Holger | @fdb: and may have had hay, probably. Which brings us back to the question, whether hay was a required prerequisite. | |
| Aug 30, 2016 at 14:01 | comment | added | fdb | @Holger. Lutetia Parisiorum existed long before the arrival of the Romans, probably already in the 3rd century BC. And the Parisii must have had horses. | |
| Aug 30, 2016 at 13:50 | comment | added | Holger | So Freeman Dyson was all-wrong regarding the timeline, but given that the Romans did have hay, did move north to the Alps and Vienna, Paris, and London existed by that time, the remaining question is: could they do this because they had hay, in other words, was hay relevant? | |
| Aug 29, 2016 at 14:15 | history | edited | NSNoob | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| S Aug 29, 2016 at 8:31 | history | suggested | Brasidas | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Added blockquotes for readability.
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| Aug 29, 2016 at 2:35 | comment | added | njuffa | The Latin original can be found in various online collections, for example here: Foenum autem demetitur optime ante quam inarescat; [...] | |
| Aug 29, 2016 at 2:06 | review | Suggested edits | |||
| S Aug 29, 2016 at 8:31 | |||||
| Aug 29, 2016 at 0:44 | history | edited | fdb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Aug 29, 2016 at 0:34 | history | answered | fdb | CC BY-SA 3.0 |