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Apr 26, 2019 at 16:55 comment added LаngLаngС And I don't consider him 'guilty'. And also not 'not guilty'. It's unknown. The official allied ruling directly after the war was more lenient to lower ranks and the whole org than recent research. The war in the East, massacres in France, Italy, Greece etc just make "ah, clean because WM and not SS" untenable. Instead of inference based on outdated cold war policy and logic I want a closer look at evidence for this one later high-ranking individual.
Apr 26, 2019 at 16:27 comment added Luiz was the Wehrmacht itself at divisional or army level considered a criminal org by the allies? I thought it was only the SS, OKW, Gestapo, etc. After the war the Allies defined how to deal with 'I was just a member' claims. But Herr officers did not get the same treatment. I see that your question is about a single individual, but my point is that just 'he fought in the Balkans' is not enough to consider him guilty.
Apr 26, 2019 at 16:17 comment added LаngLаngС Membership in a criminal organisation is nowadays reason alone to be convicted in a court of law. – In this historic case we cannot infer either way about one individual's personal conduct or involvements during the war. That's why I want to see more concrete evidence about this particular one.
Apr 26, 2019 at 16:12 history answered Luiz CC BY-SA 4.0