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Dec 15, 2020 at 21:03 comment added IMSoP This answer merely begs the question: all of its logic would apply equally as reasons not to bestow the title "queen" on the wife of a king, and yet the question correctly states that that is not common practice.
Mar 15, 2020 at 13:08 comment added Pieter Geerkens @MarkC.Wallace: ... except on occasion in Russia; viz Catherine the Great. All rules have exceptions, I guess.
Feb 7, 2018 at 0:33 comment added MCW You are correct. But the regnancy is not bestowed by marriage
Feb 7, 2018 at 0:20 comment added MAGolding This answer is incomplete and somewhat misleading. Since 1200 there have been two queens regnant - with all the powers of a king - in Scotland (Margaret and Mary), five in England and Ireland (Jane, Mary I, Elizabeth I, Mary II, and Anne), one in Great Britain (Anne again), and two in the United Kingdom (Victoria and Elizabeth II). This shows that queen can be the title of the monarch as well as king can. And my answer shows that there have been kings consort, the husbands of queens regnant, in Britain.
Dec 15, 2013 at 11:16 comment added MCW The British would argue to the contrary; they are content with their constitution. I suspect that the last time that the Queen's consort was not granted the privilege was William and Mary who were co-rulers. I'll take a look to see if I'm right.
Dec 15, 2013 at 4:46 comment added Pieter Geerkens @FelixGoldberg: But when was it last not granted? There is no constitution in Britain, so everything is merely customary.
Dec 12, 2012 at 21:06 comment added Felix Goldberg Actually, her husband may be a prince or he may not. Turns out that in the UK the granting of a princely title to the queen's consort is not automatic but discretionary.
Dec 12, 2012 at 17:28 history answered MCW CC BY-SA 3.0