I often encounter a claim that Hitler came to power democratically, exploiting democratic procedures, was "elected" etc.
Such claims are usually made by right-wing Liberals who use this argument to justify political restrictions on their opponents as being a painful but necessary measure.
Sometimes the Nazis are counterpoised to the Bolsheviks, who, the narrator alleges, unlike the Nazis, made an anti-democratic coup which makes them even worse in the view of the narrator.
But if we look at the results of the German elections, we see that the share of Nazi party in the Reichstag before 1933 was not much exceeding 1/3. The last elections before 1933 were even less successful for the Nazi party because their share shrank while the share of German Communists rose.
These numbers did not allow the Nazis to form a cabinet according the constitution, and there was no possibility of an alliance with other parties.
As we know, Hitler was appointed to Kanzler office by the president following a behind-the-scenes deal among the German political elite.
So my question is:
how much is the claim justified that 'Hitler came to power democratically'?