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My history book is cited below. My book says that when Charles V abdicated as Holy Roman Emperor, he gave control of his territories in Spain to his son, Philip II. However, what territories did Charles V have in Spain, and how did he gain them? I thought Spain was a powerful kingdom ruled by Ferdinand and Isabella (or their descendants) at that time.

McKay, John, Bennett Hill, John Buckler, Clare Crownston, Merry Wiesner-Hanks, and Joe Perry. A History of Western Society. 10th ed. Print.

closed as off-topic by Pieter Geerkens, Kobunite, American Luke, Lennart Regebro, DVK Feb 15 '14 at 3:09

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4

"Spain was a powerful kingdom ruled by Ferdinand and Isabella (or their descendants) at that time."

Charles V was one of those descendants. Specifically, his mother, Juana of Castile was the daughter of Ferdinand and Isabella, while he inherited Austria, the Holy Roman Empire, and the Netherlands from his father and the father's parents.

And Charles V controlled essentially ALL of Spain, excluding Portugal and Navarre.

5

Easy: through his mother, who was Ferdinand and Isabella's daughter.

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