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Here in the UK, we refer to the "Victorians", or the era in which the "Victorians" reigned. I recently read an article on the BBC about a story set in the United States during the Victorian Era. Whilst this made sense from the perspective of the BBC (being a British company), it did make me wonder if the era made any sense outside the borders of the UK... Do other countries even recognise it as an era? Are there equivalents? When is it okay and not okay to refer to something in that era that is not contextually relevant?

Have tagged as [Victorian]... ;)

  • You occasionally see people arguing against that usage here in the US, but it's really, really common -- people will talk about Victorian architecture or Victorian fashion (which is sort of silly anyway -- she was Queen a long time and fashions changed a lot!) or just "Victorian times." – litlnemo May 17 '14 at 13:35
  • In Germany it is a common expression, see e.g. Wikipedia. A similar expression could be Wilhelminische Ära or Wilhelminismus = Wilhelminism. – knut May 17 '14 at 20:14
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    Not in France (it wouldn't be understood by people who aren't familiar with British history). – Gilles May 19 '14 at 9:13
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    @Gilles. Though Foucault (“Nous autres, victoriens”) evidently thought otherwise. See: forum.wordreference.com/threads/nous-autres-victoriens.2743448 – fdb Aug 10 '16 at 8:08
  • In Sweden and Norway, the later part of the Victorian era is called the "Oscarian period", after king Oscar II (reigned 1872-1907). The term has strong implications of moral hypocrisy, with one thing said in public and another done in pricate. – andejons Aug 10 '16 at 9:44
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Is it correct? I am pleased to say that there is no authority that can deem a term correct or incorrect. There are no language police. (See Aside #1)

If you use the term Victorian Era, you will (probably) be understood. Although Victoria was only Queen of the Commonwealth, the sun never set on her territory, and even where she did not rule, she influenced (soft power). As a consequence, the term is useful - there is an entry in both wikipedia and Merriam Webster.

The term is commonly used in several contexts (gamewriting, costuming, fiction).

For US only, we can use the terms "ante-bellum" and "post-bellum" to refer to portions of the Victorian era.

Aside #1 I will grant that there are many language police, but they are not relevant to any meaningful endeavor. Arguably mocking the foolish is amusing, but probably not meaningful

Aside #2 - The prudishness of Victorians is vastly overstated. Arguably, one of the reasons that the English largely ignored the revolutions of 1850 is that the English "liberals" were more powerful than liberals in other countries because they had a long history of funding themselves through publication of pornography. Greater funding meant that they had more influence, and consequently they didn't need to rebel; they just needed to use the funds provided by pornography to advance a liberal agenda.

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    @MarkC.Wallace Just how long have you been waiting to include pornography in a History:SE answer? – CGCampbell Sep 5 '14 at 16:54
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“Victorian” makes sense within the boundaries of the United Kingdom (as you say), but also within the boundaries of the British Empire. Remember that Victoria was “Empress of India”. Outside of the British Empire, for example in the USA, it does not really make sense, though lots of Americans do talk about the “Victorian era”, mainly in the context of discussions of sexual prudishness.

  • I'm curious. Whats your source for the statement that Americans talk about the Victorian era "mainly in the context of discussions of sexual prudishness" – crownjewel82 May 18 '14 at 11:26
  • I thought Indians (from India- to clarify) used "Victorian" as a reference to sexual prudishness. And no- I have no references except my own life experience. – Rajib May 18 '14 at 17:44
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    @Rajib: Actually the period of American prudishness lasted only from about 1870 to 1900, the later part of the Victorian era, that is after the Civil War, the shadow of which dampened the libidos of a whole (so-called) "Missionary" generation. – Tom Au Aug 9 '16 at 22:27
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    In my experience, the three most common usages of the term "Victorian" in the US is to refer to a building of some sort, furniture of some sort, or clothing of some sort. All those are far more common then references to prudishness. This may be a regional thing, as I'm on the West Coast, were "Victorians" are common and "Antebellum" is not a word in common usage. – Steven Burnap Aug 10 '16 at 19:53
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Curiously, I was in a tour of a Victorian mansion, probably the Emyln Physic House in Cape May, New Jersey (or possibly Wheatland in Lancaster, PA), and the guide used the term "Victorian" a bit differently. As I remember the surviving decoration was dated to two periods about a decade apart and one period was described as "Victorian" and the other had a different name.

So apparently in the tour guide believed that in the history of American interior decoration the Victorian period of 1837-1901 is divided into sub periods, one of which is called "Victorian" and the others with different names.

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