In 1947, Both India and Pakistan were given independence from Britain. India was able to establish Hindi as its national language with minimal problems. Pakistan, on the other hand, was created with mutual understanding between East and West (Muhammad Ali Jinnah was from West Pakistan (today's Pakistan) and Sir Nawab Salimullah, the founder of Muslim League was from East Pakistan (today's Bangladesh)). However, in 1952, when Pakistan declared Urdu its national language, it was hugely opposed by the people of East Pakistan (the Bangladeshi).
This map shows that Urdu is not spoken by people of any specific area in Pakistan (former West Pakistan). This is like a Lingua franca in Pakistan, as does Hindi in India.
My question is, why did the people of East Pakistan (Bangladesh) decide to revolt so early (only within five years of the formation of the Dominion of Pakistan) while Indian people successfully embraced Hindi after some protests in Tamil Nadu and some little protests in Barak Valley, Assam?
Please just be confined with the "Language Movement" of 1952, not the "Liberation War" of 1971. Just stick to the matter of "Language."