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Today I run into this picture (shown below) that shows what seems to be a stark difference in the percentage of indigenous populations in Spanish speaking countries vs other countries in the Americas (e.g. the US & Brazil).

Were there fundamental differences in the way Spanish vs non-Spanish speaking countries were colonized that would specifically explain this difference?

                                            enter image description here

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    It would be nice to "migrate" this map to the other question. Too bad it's a duplicate. This questionner actually made a good contribution! – Tom Au Jan 31 '15 at 20:42
  • @TomAu: If you appreciate this questioner's contribution, upvote the question. – Pieter Geerkens Jan 31 '15 at 21:26
  • @PieterGeerkens: Will the upvote be lost if the question is deleted as a duplicate. – Tom Au Jan 31 '15 at 21:36
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    @TomAu: I am not interested in deleting this question, even though I voted to close it as a duplicate. Are you? – Pieter Geerkens Jan 31 '15 at 21:40
  • There's no need to migrate the image. It's the exact same map as the duplicate question's (that's how I remembered in the first place). – Semaphore Feb 1 '15 at 5:28