As far as I know, Puritans were devout Calvinists. According to Theopedia, it is associated with disobedience to the established authority, so it may be connected with the idea of lawlessness, immorality, or licentiousness. Was this term merely a pejorative adjective for people who disagreed with the established religious authority, like legalism? Or did the Puritan antinomians really have their own theology on justification before God, and if so, how did the Puritan antinomians thought they were justified? What was the purpose of God's moral laws then?

  • 1
    Wrong forum, try christianity.stackexchange.com. Feb 1, 2015 at 1:09
  • "It is associated" ? What is associated? I am confused.
    – MCW
    Feb 1, 2015 at 1:11
  • I thought it had something to do with history.
    – Double U
    Feb 1, 2015 at 1:22
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    @DoubleU Questions about religious theory and doctrine are not in scope here, unless they have some immediate and pertinent bearing on a historical event, which is not the case here. So, you should either be asking on philosophy.stackexchange.com or on the Christianity SE I already linked. Feb 1, 2015 at 1:27
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    If it's about theology, it's still better to ask it at the two SE's Tyler Durden mentioned.
    – two sheds
    Feb 1, 2015 at 2:04


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