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As far as I know, Puritans were devout Calvinists. According to Theopedia, it is associated with disobedience to the established authority, so it may be connected with the idea of lawlessness, immorality, or licentiousness. Was this term merely a pejorative adjective for people who disagreed with the established religious authority, like legalism? Or did the Puritan antinomians really have their own theology on justification before God, and if so, how did the Puritan antinomians thought they were justified? What was the purpose of God's moral laws then?

closed as off-topic by Tyler Durden, two sheds, Mark C. Wallace, Semaphore, Pieter Geerkens Feb 1 '15 at 15:26

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "Questions on social sciences other than History are off-topic here, unless they also involve history in some fashion. While ethics, archaeology, etc. are all connected to history, each field has their own experts who are better equipped to answer such questions." – Tyler Durden, two sheds, Mark C. Wallace, Semaphore, Pieter Geerkens
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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    Wrong forum, try christianity.stackexchange.com. – Tyler Durden Feb 1 '15 at 1:09
  • "It is associated" ? What is associated? I am confused. – Mark C. Wallace Feb 1 '15 at 1:11
  • I thought it had something to do with history. – Double U Feb 1 '15 at 1:22
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    @DoubleU Questions about religious theory and doctrine are not in scope here, unless they have some immediate and pertinent bearing on a historical event, which is not the case here. So, you should either be asking on philosophy.stackexchange.com or on the Christianity SE I already linked. – Tyler Durden Feb 1 '15 at 1:27
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    If it's about theology, it's still better to ask it at the two SE's Tyler Durden mentioned. – two sheds Feb 1 '15 at 2:04