Nazi Germany's allies, Italy and Japan displayed a lot of ideological dissimilarities with the Nazi Germany's ideology and also Germany had some Germans-populated regions inside Italy (South Tyrol).

Did Hitler ever plan a future war with their allies, Japan and/or Italy after their joint Axis victory is achieved?

Note that Hitler was not self-restrained from crushing on loyal and obedient regimes and groups before, examples may include Poland, the USSR, Vichy France, Denmark, Hungary, various Jewish ghettos in Poland, Ukrainian nationalists etc.

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    I'm not sure this is opinion based. Are there documents that indicate that Hitler planned to go to war with his allies? I'm not sure the last paragraph adds anything to the question, but I believe this is a legitimate question. – MCW May 1 '15 at 18:07
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    Soviet Union was not just a "loyal and obedient regime" but a true ally. Which you cannot say about Poland and Denmark. As you know, Germany and Soviet Union jointly invaded and partitioned Poland. – Alex May 1 '15 at 21:44
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    @Alex Poland jointly with Germany partitioned Chechoslovakia before that. Denmark was effectively an occupied country. Thy broke only when Germany demanded to introduce capital punishment for not obeying German requests. – Anixx May 1 '15 at 21:47
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    There is some difference. Invasion of Poland was a true war (which triggered the world war btw). Soviets actualy did some fighting. And had a secret treaty about partitioning of Eastern Europe (now available to the public). Anyway, the answer to your question is yes: Hitler not only planned bt actually attacked his ally. – Alex May 1 '15 at 22:07
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    @Alex the invasion of Cechoslovakia also included some fighting (mostly between Cechoslovak units and Hungary). – Anixx Sep 18 '17 at 14:35

Hitler did, in fact, go to war with Italy, de facto, if not de jure. His "excuse" was to restore the "rightful" Italian government (under Mussolini). This was after the Italians rebelled and went over to the allies in 1943.

If the Axis had been winning, the Italians might have rebelled (against Mussolini) anyway, because of the hardships of the war. In 1945, the British "rebelled" (peacefully) against Winston Churchill by throwing him out of office in favor of Clement Atlee. A similar thing might have happened in Italy after the Axis won, with Hitler sending German troops into Italy to restore Mussolini. Of course, it would have been cast as "bandit suppression," or something similar, as opposed to a declaration of war.

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