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He writes 'Not long ago Nazism transformed the whole of Europe into a veritable colony', meaning that the techniques pioneered in the colonies of Europe were turned upon Europe itself, culminating in the horrors of the holocaust, mirroring that, of say the Belgian Congo.

closed as off-topic by Samuel Russell, Null, Kerry L, Steve Bird, sempaiscuba Nov 14 '18 at 19:47

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  • If you read about the genocide of the Hereros and about Belgian Congo, you can see easily that it was kind of a rehearsal before the Nazi Holocaust. – quant_dev Jun 19 '12 at 10:38
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    This question would be improved by sources. – Mark C. Wallace Nov 14 '18 at 15:22
  • Note that this was also asked and answered on Philosophy:SE. In a comment to the accepted answer, OP appears to acknowledge that Fanon doesn't actually make that point at all. – sempaiscuba Nov 14 '18 at 19:43
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Parts of Europe had tried to colonise itself for ages. It wasn't just something the Nazi's did. From the Romans who 'Romanised' their places onward, respect for lots of other cultures is relatively new in Europe (last 100 years or so)

  • I think Fanon was getting at the correspondance between European expansion/domination, Nazi Master Race narrative, and Extermination/Concentration Camps of the Jews with Continental Expansion/Domination, White European supremacy and Extermination/Reservations for the natives. I don't know what he would have made of the Romans. I think Alexander the Great encouraged his men to marry into the local women. The Ptolemies carried on the tradition of the Pharoahs. – Mozibur Ullah Jun 19 '12 at 11:51
  • Alexander the Great might have, but the Roman (& the Greeks) viewed foreingers are "barbarians" – Rory Jun 20 '12 at 16:28

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