My question is whether the percentage of nobility migrating from Spain to Latin America is higher than the percentage of nobility migrating from Pan-European nations to the USA and Canada. The time frame for my question is the formative years for Latin America, and the formative years for the United States and Canada.
Defining "nobility" is challenging. One way that I am looking at this is through the lens of whether or not families can trace their family tree back to Europe and then possibly to great European figures. The assumption is that nobility take greater pains to do this, and can do this more easily. And conversely, the impoverished have a harder time doing this.
In the various forms of media, we see various clichés. We see European migrants entering Ellis Island penniless (and likely sans-family-tree). And then we see Spanish conquistadors and their noble wives. Basically, in the media, we tend to not really see the face of impoverished Spanish migrants moving to Latin America for a new start and because they have no better option. It's just not a cliché we see a lot in the media.
Were the Spanish migrants to Latin America filled with more nobility? Were the Pan-European migrants to USA and Canada comprised, to a greater degree, of "huddled masses"? This seems like a difficult question, and I'm not sure what resources could be used to approximate an answer.