The Treaty of Granada which surrendered Granada, the last Muslim-controlled area in medieval Spain, to King Ferdinand of Aragon and Queen Isabella of Castile seemed to be quite generous, magnanimous and honorable. In return for the surrender, the Christian victors promised pretty much safe conduct and religious tolerance for Granada's inhabitants. The treaty was pretty specific in guaranteeing the Muslims' right, including related to religious practice and guarding them against forced conversions. Some of the provisions include:
- That their mosques, and the religious endowments appertaining to them, should remain as they were in the times of Islam.
- That no Christian should enter the house of a Muslim, or insult him in any way
- That the Christians who had embraced Islam should not be compelled to relinquish it and adopt their former creed.
- That any Muslim wishing to become a Christian should be allowed some days to consider the step he was about to take; after which he is to be questioned by both a Muslim and a Christian judge concerning his intended change, and if, after this examination, he still refused to return to Islam, he should be permitted to follow his own inclination.
- That no muezzin should be interrupted in the act of calling the people to prayer, and no Muslim molested either in the performance of his daily devotions or in the observance of his fast, or in any other religious ceremony; but that if a Christian should be found laughing at them he should be punished for it.
But in the end, within a couple of years the victors revoked the tolerant provisions in this treaty, and a total persecution and expulsion of Muslims (and Jews) from Spain would follow. See Spanish Inquisition, Persecution of Muslims in Iberian Peninsula, Expulsion of the Moriscos.
My question: did they (the Muslim residents) expect the Christians to respect this treaty? The answer can be based on any written records from their side (I understand this might bias highly on their middle-upper class who left written records), or if that's not possible, from what could be reasonably expected based on previous observation of such treaty in this period and place, or the reputation of the Castilians prior to this surrender (the Christians and the Muslims in Spain had both been in Spain for the past 7 centuries or so, I'm sure there must have been precedents such as truces, peace treaties or alliances and expectation about how likely they were kept).