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Most art historians say the movement resulted from the Persian Wars. I've also read that the rejection of Persian ideals and culture triggered the movement into the classical style art. Does anyone have any sources they could share that could possibly provide insight to this question?

closed as primarily opinion-based by Tyler Durden, TheHonRose, CGCampbell, Gwen, Semaphore Nov 14 '15 at 8:37

Many good questions generate some degree of opinion based on expert experience, but answers to this question will tend to be almost entirely based on opinions, rather than facts, references, or specific expertise. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • Asking for sources or references is off topic. Also, the question involves highly subjective theories, not historical facts, so it is not a good fit for this site which has as its focus non-subjective history. Unfortunately, there is no art history stack exchange, so I do not know where you could go to discuss this, maybe an art history forum on the web like wetcanvas.com ? – Tyler Durden Nov 13 '15 at 22:59