According to wikipedia some of the greatest European empires seemed to peak in GDP in 1938. I assume that it was WWII that caused declines in the GDPs of these empires. If this indeed the case, then how exactly did WWII affect these countries imperialism to cause this GDP drop? And if this is not the case, then what DID affect these countries imperialism to cause this GDP drop?
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2Well, it definitively didn't help Germany, that's for sure.– Tyler DurdenDec 11, 2015 at 15:03
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AFAIK, there was only one "empire" at the start of WW2 - namely the British Empire, and it too decreased rapidly after WW2 as a result of decolonization. So, which "empires" are you talking about?– taninamdarDec 11, 2015 at 15:21
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I don't think they peak in those years, those are just the years of measurement. If I'm right, that would distort the analysis. And I believe, to answer @taninamdar question, that the reason you're using "Empire" rather than "country" is only because the wikipedia page does so?– MCW ♦Dec 11, 2015 at 16:11
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@taninamdar The UK wasn't the only one. Germany, France and the Netherlands also had quite significant overseas territories in Africa and SE Asia.– SchwernDec 11, 2015 at 22:54
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@Schwern I haven't heard them being termed as empires. Btw, which overseas territory did Germany have?– taninamdarDec 12, 2015 at 0:46
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In my opinion..... The Economy of USA rose because of the second world war. USA lent money to different countries during the war. Not only Money but other resources. So After the WW2 the countries returned the money to the usa..making them richer than the rest(in that period)`..just my idea
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1Please consult How to Ask; H:SE isn't really designed for opinions; we;re looking more for historical scholarship. Welcome to the site.– MCW ♦Dec 13, 2015 at 16:02