According to wikipedia some of the greatest European empires seemed to peak in GDP in 1938. I assume that it was WWII that caused declines in the GDPs of these empires. If this indeed the case, then how exactly did WWII affect these countries imperialism to cause this GDP drop? And if this is not the case, then what DID affect these countries imperialism to cause this GDP drop?
In my opinion..... The Economy of USA rose because of the second world war. USA lent money to different countries during the war. Not only Money but other resources. So After the WW2 the countries returned the money to the usa..making them richer than the rest(in that period)`..just my idea