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How did urbanization affect feudal society (middle ages)

The political, economic and cultural affects. As well as how it started.

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closed as too broad by Tyler Durden, Semaphore♦, Steve Bird, CGCampbell, user69715 Jan 21 '16 at 22:05

Please edit the question to limit it to a specific problem with enough detail to identify an adequate answer. Avoid asking multiple distinct questions at once. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

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    Please make sure to fully footnote your paper and do a spell check before submitting to LAB@weluvcheaterscorrschool.edu – Tyler Durden Jan 21 '16 at 16:30
  • While this is a fascinating question, it is simply too broad for H:SE. – Mark C. Wallace♦ Jan 21 '16 at 16:35
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The very short answer is (the following are all generalities; there are exceptions)

  1. Urban workforces were frequently chartered rather than embedded in a feudal relationship; their relationship with their overlords were distinctly different. Charters often conveyed rights that were denied to serfs.
  2. During increase demand for labor (e.g. after a plague or war) feudalism does not provide for incentives to serfs when the demand for labor increases. It was difficult to persuade urban workers to become serfs, which cause a conflict between two visions of society.
  3. Urban populations, generally speaking, can earn and maintain wealth; serf populations cannot. This is closely related to #1

Why did urbanization begin? That's a complex question - population size, technology, capital, governance and other factors affected the growth of urban populations. One of the reasons this question is too broad to be answered is that each society dealt with the problem in different ways.

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    In before close. :p – CGCampbell Jan 21 '16 at 19:00

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